Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assigned to care for a client with unstable blood pressure. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Monitor the client every two hours.
• B. Continuously monitor the client's vital signs.
• C. Wait for the healthcare provider to provide instructions.
• D. Ask the healthcare provider for specific instructions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of a client with unstable blood pressure, the priority action for the nurse is to continuously monitor the client's vital signs. This allows for immediate detection of any fluctuations in blood pressure and timely intervention if necessary. Choice A, monitoring every two hours, may not provide real-time information needed for prompt intervention. Choices C and D suggest waiting for instructions from the healthcare provider, which could cause a delay in addressing the unstable blood pressure, potentially leading to adverse outcomes. Therefore, the most appropriate initial action is to continuously monitor the client's vital signs.

2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client following a gastrectomy. Which of the following strategies should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Drink fluids between meals
• B. Eat three large meals each day
• C. Lie down for 30 minutes after meals
• D. Avoid drinking liquids with meals

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct strategy to include in the teaching after a gastrectomy is to avoid drinking liquids with meals. This helps prevent dumping syndrome, a condition characterized by rapid emptying of undigested food and fluids from the stomach into the small intestine. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Drinking fluids between meals is appropriate to maintain hydration, eating three large meals can exacerbate dumping syndrome, and lying down after meals is not recommended as it can increase the risk of reflux.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a patient with chronic pain. Which finding is most concerning?

• A. The patient reports a pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10.
• B. The patient is lying still and refuses to move.
• C. The patient's pain persists despite medication.
• D. The patient reports feeling anxious and restless.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the context of chronic pain management, the most concerning finding is when the patient's pain persists despite medication. This suggests inadequate pain control or the need for a re-evaluation of the treatment plan. Choices A, B, and D are not as concerning in this scenario. A pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10 is moderate and may be manageable with appropriate interventions. Patients with chronic pain can sometimes lie still due to pain or other reasons, and anxiety and restlessness are common in individuals with pain conditions but may not necessarily indicate a critical issue like uncontrolled pain.

4. Which intervention is most effective in managing a patient with chronic pain?

• A. Administer opioid medications as prescribed.
• B. Teach the patient relaxation techniques.
• C. Encourage the patient to perform range of motion exercises.
• D. Recommend complete bed rest to minimize pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most effective intervention in managing a patient with chronic pain is teaching the patient relaxation techniques. Relaxation techniques can help reduce stress, decrease muscle tension, and improve pain management in patients with chronic pain. Administering opioids as prescribed may have risks of dependence and side effects, making it less favorable as a first-line intervention. Encouraging range of motion exercises can be beneficial, but relaxation techniques directly target stress reduction, a common exacerbating factor in chronic pain. Recommending complete bed rest is generally discouraged in chronic pain management as it can lead to deconditioning and worsen pain over time.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Improvement in visual acuity
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Weight loss of 1.36 kg (3 lb) in 24 hours
• D. Increased urinary output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output is the desired outcome when administering furosemide to a client with heart failure. Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes the excretion of excess fluids from the body, which helps in reducing fluid overload, a common symptom of heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the action of furosemide in treating heart failure. Visual acuity improvement, decreased respiratory rate, and rapid weight loss are not typical indicators of furosemide effectiveness in managing heart failure.

Similar Questions