Nursing Elites

1. A client has bilateral eye patches in place following an injury. When the client's food tray arrives, which of the following interventions should the nurse take to promote independence in eating?

• A. Assign an assistive personnel to feed the client.
• B. Explain to the client that their tray is here and guide their hands to it.
• C. Describe to the client the location of the food on the tray.
• D. Ask the client if they would prefer a liquid diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client has bilateral eye patches, promoting independence in eating is crucial to maintain dignity and autonomy. Describing the location of the food on the tray enables the client to locate and feed themselves. Assigning assistive personnel to feed the client (Choice A) takes away their independence. Merely informing the client that the tray is here and guiding their hands to it (Choice B) does not empower the client to eat independently. Asking if the client prefers a liquid diet (Choice D) is not directly addressing the client's ability to independently eat the current meal.

2. A nurse is caring for an antepartum client who has iron-deficiency anemia. When teaching the client about nutrition, the nurse should emphasize the need for an increased intake of which of the following foods?

• A. Milk and cheese
• B. Red meat and organ meat
• C. Fresh fruits
• D. Whole grain breads

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is red meat and organ meat. These foods are rich sources of heme iron, which is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron found in plant-based foods. Red meat and organ meat can significantly help in increasing the iron levels in individuals with iron-deficiency anemia, especially in antepartum clients. Fresh fruits, while nutritious, do not provide high amounts of iron. Milk and cheese are not the best sources of iron for individuals with iron-deficiency anemia. Whole grain breads also do not contain as much bioavailable iron as red meat and organ meat.

3. A fire has broken in the unit of DMLM R.N. The best leadership style suited in cases of emergencies like this is:

• A. Autocratic
• B. Participative
• C. Democratic
• D. Laissez Faire

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.

4. Symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome are most likely associated with disturbed defecation, bloating, and _____.

• A. rectal bleeding
• B. abdominal pain
• C. rectal fissures
• D. esophageal paralysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Abdominal pain is a common symptom of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), along with bloating and changes in bowel habits. Rectal bleeding (choice A) is more commonly associated with conditions like inflammatory bowel disease or colorectal cancer. Rectal fissures (choice C) may cause rectal bleeding but are not typically considered a core symptom of IBS. Esophageal paralysis (choice D) is unrelated to the symptoms of IBS, which primarily affect the lower gastrointestinal tract.

5. You are a researcher testing out the effects of a new food molecule—MEGA—on bone health. In order to know if it actually travels to bone cells in the body, you first need to find out if it gets absorbed in the bloodstream. You eat a food containing MEGA, and you measure the molecule in your urine and feces. You only detect MEGA in the feces. Was MEGA absorbed?

• A. No—absorbed compounds show up in urine, not feces
• B. Yes—absorbed compounds show up in feces, not urine
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If MEGA was only detected in feces and not in urine, it was not absorbed into the bloodstream. Absorbed compounds typically appear in urine after processing by the body. The correct answer is A because the presence of a compound in feces indicates that it was not absorbed by the body and passed through the digestive system. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the process of absorption and excretion in the body.

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