Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client following an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?

• A. Level of consciousness
• B. Pain
• C. Nausea
• D. Gag reflex

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is assessing the gag reflex. This is the priority assessment following an EGD procedure to prevent aspiration. Checking the gag reflex helps ensure the client's airway protection. Assessing the level of consciousness is important, but ensuring the client can protect their airway takes precedence. Pain and nausea assessments are also essential but are secondary to maintaining airway patency.

2. What are the common side effects of opioid analgesics, and how should they be managed?

• A. Drowsiness and dizziness, ensuring safety precautions
• B. Respiratory depression, ensuring adequate ventilation
• C. Constipation and nausea, managed with stool softeners
• D. Nausea and vomiting, managing with antiemetics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Common side effects of opioid analgesics include drowsiness and dizziness. These side effects can impair a person's ability to operate machinery or drive safely. To manage these side effects, it is essential to advise patients to avoid activities that require alertness until they know how the medication affects them. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because respiratory depression, constipation, and nausea are also common side effects of opioids, but they are not the primary side effects being asked for in this question.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has asthma. Which of the following areas should the nurse evaluate as the most reliable indicator of central cyanosis?

• A. Oral mucosa
• B. Conjunctivae
• C. Soles of the feet
• D. Ear lobes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Central cyanosis is best assessed by examining the oral mucosa, as it is a more reliable indicator compared to other areas like the conjunctivae, soles of the feet, and ear lobes. The oral mucosa reflects the oxygen saturation levels of the blood more accurately. Conjunctivae and ear lobes may show cyanosis, but they are not as reliable as the oral mucosa. The soles of the feet are not typically used to assess central cyanosis.

4. What is the primary intervention for a client diagnosed with delirium?

• A. Provide a quiet and calm environment to minimize confusion
• B. Administer medication to reverse the symptoms of delirium
• C. Provide opportunities for social interaction to reduce isolation
• D. Encourage the client to remain physically active

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide a quiet and calm environment to minimize confusion. For clients diagnosed with delirium, creating a tranquil setting can help reduce agitation and disorientation. This intervention aims to decrease stimuli that may exacerbate symptoms. Administering medication (choice B) is not the primary intervention for delirium; it is usually reserved for specific underlying causes. While social interaction (choice C) and physical activity (choice D) are beneficial for overall well-being, they are not the primary interventions for managing delirium.

5. The nurse is observing the way a patient walks. What aspect is the nurse assessing?

• A. Body alignment
• B. Gait
• C. Activity tolerance
• D. Range of motion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gait. Gait refers to the manner in which a person walks, including aspects such as stride length, step width, and walking speed. When a nurse observes a patient's gait, they are assessing their mobility and looking for any abnormalities or issues in their walking pattern. Choice A, body alignment, focuses more on the posture and position of the body rather than the actual walking pattern. Choice C, activity tolerance, relates to the ability to withstand physical activity without experiencing excessive fatigue. Choice D, range of motion, pertains to the extent of movement at a joint and is not directly related to observing the way a patient walks.

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