Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is completing discharge teaching to a client about nutrition therapy for wound healing following major surgery. Which of the following vitamins that promote wound healing should the healthcare provider include in the teaching? (SATA)

• A. Vitamin B12
• B. Vitamin C
• C. Vitamin K
• D. Vitamin D

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin C. Vitamin C is essential for wound healing due to its role in collagen production. Collagen is crucial for wound repair and the formation of new tissue. Vitamin B12 is important for nerve function and DNA synthesis but is not directly related to wound healing. Vitamin K is essential for blood clotting and bone health but does not directly promote wound healing. Vitamin D plays a role in bone health and immune function but is not a primary vitamin involved in wound healing.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who requires total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take when finding that the TPN solution is infusing too rapidly?

• A. Sit the client upright
• B. Stop the TPN infusion
• C. Turn the client on their left side
• D. Prepare to add insulin to the TPN infusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when finding that the TPN solution is infusing too rapidly is to stop the TPN infusion. This is crucial to prevent fluid overload and ensure the client's safety. Sitting the client upright (Choice A) or turning the client on their left side (Choice C) are not appropriate responses to a rapidly infusing TPN solution and do not address the immediate issue of preventing complications from the rapid infusion. Adding insulin to the TPN infusion (Choice D) is not indicated unless specifically prescribed by the healthcare provider for the client's condition. Therefore, the priority action is to stop the TPN infusion to prevent potential harm.

3. What is the primary intervention for a client diagnosed with delirium?

• A. Provide a quiet and calm environment to minimize confusion
• B. Administer medication to reverse the symptoms of delirium
• C. Provide opportunities for social interaction to reduce isolation
• D. Encourage the client to remain physically active

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide a quiet and calm environment to minimize confusion. For clients diagnosed with delirium, creating a tranquil setting can help reduce agitation and disorientation. This intervention aims to decrease stimuli that may exacerbate symptoms. Administering medication (choice B) is not the primary intervention for delirium; it is usually reserved for specific underlying causes. While social interaction (choice C) and physical activity (choice D) are beneficial for overall well-being, they are not the primary interventions for managing delirium.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for cimetidine. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare provider identify as the priority to report to the provider?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. WBC count 9,000/mm3
• C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 50 units/L
• D. Fasting glucose 105 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated AST level is indicative of liver damage, which is the priority finding to report to the provider when administering cimetidine. Elevated liver enzymes can be a sign of liver toxicity or damage. Monitoring liver function is crucial when using cimetidine, as it can sometimes lead to hepatotoxicity. The other laboratory findings are within normal ranges and not directly associated with cimetidine administration.

5. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?

• A. Buprenorphine hydrochloride
• B. Hydrocodone bitartrate
• C. Diazepam
• D. Morphine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.

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