ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. Which action should the nurse take to minimize the risk of medication errors?
- A. Prepare medications ahead of time to ensure they are ready.
- B. Ensure two nurses double-check medications before administration.
- C. Administer medications at the same time each day.
- D. Rely on memory to administer the correct medications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because ensuring two nurses double-check medications before administration is a crucial step in minimizing the risk of medication errors. This practice helps in verifying the accuracy of medication orders and reducing the chances of mistakes. Choice A may not necessarily prevent errors as preparing medications ahead of time does not guarantee accuracy. Choice C, administering medications at the same time each day, is important for consistency but does not directly address the risk of errors. Choice D, relying on memory, is highly discouraged as it increases the likelihood of errors due to human forgetfulness.
2. A patient is admitted with signs of stroke. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse anticipate as the priority?
- A. CT scan
- B. MRI
- C. X-ray
- D. Ultrasound
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A CT scan is the priority diagnostic test to identify and confirm the location and severity of a stroke.
3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril. The provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Question: When a client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential. Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to an increase in potassium levels in the blood. This adverse effect can be serious and potentially life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, hypokalemia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects. It's essential for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring potassium levels when clients are on ACE inhibitors like enalapril.
4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for cimetidine. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare provider identify as the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. WBC count 9,000/mm3
- C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 50 units/L
- D. Fasting glucose 105 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An elevated AST level is indicative of liver damage, which is the priority finding to report to the provider when administering cimetidine. Elevated liver enzymes can be a sign of liver toxicity or damage. Monitoring liver function is crucial when using cimetidine, as it can sometimes lead to hepatotoxicity. The other laboratory findings are within normal ranges and not directly associated with cimetidine administration.
5. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propranolol. Which finding indicates that the propranolol is effective?
- A. The client reports an increase in weight
- B. The client has a decrease in blood pressure
- C. The client reports an increase in energy
- D. The client's respiratory rate has increased
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a decrease in blood pressure is an expected outcome when propranolol, a beta-blocker, is effectively managing hyperthyroidism. Propranolol helps control symptoms such as tachycardia and hypertension associated with hyperthyroidism. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, increased energy, and an increased respiratory rate are not direct indicators of propranolol's effectiveness in treating hyperthyroidism.
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