ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A nurse is reviewing the medication orders for a client with heart failure. Which of the following medications should the nurse clarify with the provider?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Spironolactone
- C. Digoxin
- D. Ibuprofen
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Ibuprofen. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can worsen heart failure due to its effects on renal function and fluid retention. Therefore, the nurse should clarify the use of Ibuprofen with the provider. Choices A, B, and C (Furosemide, Spironolactone, and Digoxin) are commonly prescribed medications for heart failure that help manage symptoms and improve cardiac function, so they do not need clarification in this scenario.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should avoid taking acetaminophen while taking this medication
- B. I will take this medication at the same time each day
- C. I will need to get my blood tested regularly while taking this medication
- D. I should increase my intake of leafy green vegetables
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Warfarin therapy requires regular blood testing to monitor INR levels and ensure therapeutic dosing. Option A is incorrect because acetaminophen can be taken with warfarin. Option B is not specific to warfarin administration. Option D is incorrect as it does not address the key monitoring requirement of blood testing while on warfarin.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer aspirin 650mg PO every 12 hr. The amount available is aspirin 325mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer?
- A. 1 tablet
- B. 2 tablets
- C. 3 tablets
- D. 4 tablets
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 2 tablets. Each tablet of aspirin is 325mg. To achieve the required dose of 650mg, the nurse should administer 2 tablets. Choice A (1 tablet) is incorrect because it would only provide 325mg, which is half the required dose. Choices C (3 tablets) and D (4 tablets) are incorrect as they would exceed the required dose.
4. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. Monitoring for signs of pulmonary embolism
- B. Applying compression stockings
- C. Administering anticoagulants as prescribed
- D. Encouraging leg elevation to reduce swelling
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring for signs of pulmonary embolism is crucial in patients with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it can be a life-threatening complication. While administering anticoagulants as prescribed is important for preventing clot progression, the immediate concern is detecting potential pulmonary embolism. Applying compression stockings and encouraging leg elevation are beneficial measures for managing DVT symptoms but are not as critical as monitoring for pulmonary embolism.
5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the catheter requires irrigation?
- A. Bladder scan shows 525 mL
- B. Absent urinary output for 1 hour
- C. Cloudy urine
- D. Bloody urine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A large bladder scan result (525 mL) suggests catheter blockage and may require irrigation to resolve. Choice B (absent urinary output for 1 hour) could indicate a different issue such as urinary retention but does not specifically indicate the need for catheter irrigation. Choices C (cloudy urine) and D (bloody urine) may suggest infection or other urinary issues, but they do not directly indicate the need for catheter irrigation.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access