a nurse is planning care for an older adult client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers which of the following interventions should the nurse
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RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN

1. A nurse is planning care for an older adult client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse use to help maintain the integrity of the client's skin?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a transfer device to lift the client up in bed. This intervention helps reduce friction and the risk of skin breakdown, aiding in the prevention of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed no more than 45 degrees can help with respiratory issues but does not directly address skin integrity. Applying cornstarch may lead to further skin irritation. Massaging over bony prominences can increase the risk of skin damage rather than maintaining skin integrity.

2. A client has hypertension and a potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining a 12-lead ECG is crucial in this situation to assess cardiac function due to the elevated potassium level. High potassium levels can lead to dangerous arrhythmias, and an ECG helps in detecting any cardiac abnormalities. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Suggesting a salt substitute can further elevate the client's potassium levels. Checking serum sodium levels is not the priority when dealing with high potassium levels. Advising the client to add citrus juices and bananas, which are high in potassium, would worsen the situation.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient with pneumonia. Which finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crackles heard in the lung bases are most concerning in a patient with pneumonia as they suggest fluid accumulation in the lungs, indicating possible severe infection or respiratory distress. Prompt intervention is required to prevent further complications.\n\nChoice A, fever of 101°F, is common in infections like pneumonia but may not be as immediately concerning as crackles indicating fluid in the lungs.\n\nChoice B, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, is within normal limits and not directly indicative of pneumonia severity.\n\nChoice C, a heart rate of 95 beats per minute, is slightly elevated but not as critical as crackles suggesting fluid in the lungs.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is taking digoxin. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations as an indication of digoxin toxicity to report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vomiting. Vomiting is a common sign of digoxin toxicity and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Diarrhea (Choice A) is a more common side effect of digoxin but not typically associated with toxicity. Ringing in the ears (Choice C) is a potential sign of toxicity; however, vomiting is a more immediate concern. Dizziness (Choice D) can occur with digoxin use but is not a specific indicator of toxicity.

5. A client was exposed to anthrax. Which of the following antibiotics should be administered?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic effective in treating anthrax exposure. Fluconazole (Choice A) is an antifungal medication used for fungal infections, not anthrax. Tobramycin (Choice B) is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections but is not the first line of treatment for anthrax. Vancomycin (Choice D) is also an antibiotic, but it is not the preferred choice for treating anthrax.

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