Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for an older adult client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse use to help maintain the integrity of the client's skin?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed no more than 45 degrees
• B. Apply cornstarch to keep sensitive skin areas dry
• C. Massage the skin over the client's bony prominences
• D. Use a transfer device to lift the client up in bed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a transfer device to lift the client up in bed. This intervention helps reduce friction and the risk of skin breakdown, aiding in the prevention of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed no more than 45 degrees can help with respiratory issues but does not directly address skin integrity. Applying cornstarch may lead to further skin irritation. Massaging over bony prominences can increase the risk of skin damage rather than maintaining skin integrity.

2. A client with HIV-1 starting therapy with ritonavir and zidovudine asks why both medications are necessary. What explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. Taking two medications ensures a faster recovery.
• B. The medications work best together to improve your immune system.
• C. Taking the 2 medications together keeps you from becoming resistant to either of them.
• D. These medications target different parts of the virus.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because taking two medications together helps prevent the development of drug resistance in HIV treatment. Choice A is incorrect because the primary goal of combination therapy is not necessarily a faster recovery. Choice B is incorrect as the main purpose of combining medications in HIV treatment is to prevent resistance rather than improving the immune system. Choice D is incorrect because while it is true that the medications may target different parts of the virus, the main reason for using both together is to prevent resistance.

3. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

• A. Teaching stress-reduction techniques
• B. Early detection of mental illness
• C. Leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder
• D. Rehabilitation and prevention of further issues

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

4. Which of the following best describes a somatic symptom disorder?

• A. Client experiences sudden onset of symptoms due to stress
• B. Physical manifestations occur due to underlying medical conditions
• C. Client has excessive preoccupation with physical symptoms without a medical cause
• D. Client avoids medical care due to fear of receiving a diagnosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Somatic symptom disorder is characterized by individuals having excessive preoccupation with physical symptoms that may or may not have an identifiable medical cause. Choice A is incorrect because the sudden onset of symptoms due to stress is more indicative of acute stress reaction. Choice B is incorrect as it describes physical manifestations related to known medical conditions, not somatic symptom disorder. Choice D is incorrect as it relates to health anxiety or illness anxiety disorder, where individuals avoid seeking medical care due to fear of receiving a diagnosis.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for clozapine. Which of the following findings indicates a contraindication to clozapine?

• A. Fasting blood glucose of 120 mg/dL
• B. Asthma
• C. Hypertension
• D. WBC count of 3,300/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low WBC count (3,300/mm3) is a contraindication to clozapine because this medication can cause severe neutropenia. Neutropenia is a significant reduction in white blood cell count, increasing the risk of infections. Elevated fasting blood glucose, asthma, and hypertension are not direct contraindications to clozapine.

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