ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A patient is admitted with signs of stroke. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse anticipate as the priority?
- A. CT scan
- B. MRI
- C. X-ray
- D. Ultrasound
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A CT scan is the priority diagnostic test to identify and confirm the location and severity of a stroke.
2. A nurse is caring for a female client who has osteoporosis and a new prescription for raloxifene. What should the nurse assess prior to initiating therapy?
- A. Pregnancy status
- B. Bone density
- C. Calcium levels
- D. Blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregnancy status. Raloxifene is a pregnancy category X drug, which means it can cause serious birth defects. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to assess the client's pregnancy status before initiating therapy. Choice B, bone density, while important in osteoporosis management, is not a specific concern related to initiating raloxifene therapy. Choice C, calcium levels, and choice D, blood pressure, are not directly related to the initiation of raloxifene therapy in a female client with osteoporosis.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Inject at a 90-degree angle
- B. Inject at a 45-degree angle
- C. Massage the injection site after administering
- D. Use a longer needle
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to inject enoxaparin subcutaneously at a 45-degree angle. This angle helps ensure proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Option A (Inject at a 90-degree angle) is incorrect because subcutaneous injections are usually given at a shallower angle. Option C (Massage the injection site after administering) is incorrect as massaging the site can cause bruising and should generally be avoided. Option D (Use a longer needle) is incorrect as using a longer needle is unnecessary and may increase the risk of injecting the medication too deeply.
4. How is the effectiveness of a diuretic in a patient with heart failure evaluated?
- A. Checking daily weights and lung sounds for improvement
- B. Assessing the patient's blood pressure and urine output
- C. Monitoring for weight loss and reduction in edema
- D. Measuring the patient's heart rate and lung sounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct way to evaluate the effectiveness of a diuretic in a patient with heart failure is by checking daily weights and lung sounds for improvement. Daily weights help to assess fluid retention changes, while improvement in lung sounds indicates reduced pulmonary congestion. Assessing blood pressure and urine output (Choice B) is important but does not directly evaluate the effectiveness of the diuretic. Monitoring for weight loss and reduction in edema (Choice C) are valid indicators of diuretic effectiveness, but direct observation of daily weights and lung sounds is more specific. Measuring heart rate and lung sounds (Choice D) is relevant but does not directly assess the impact of the diuretic on fluid balance and pulmonary status.
5. A client who has been having frequent tonic-clonic seizures is being admitted by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse add to the client's plan of care?
- A. Apply restraints
- B. Use soft wristbands
- C. Wrap blankets around side rails
- D. Administer sedatives
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should add to the client's plan of care is to wrap blankets around side rails. This helps prevent injury during seizures by providing a cushioned surface against the hard rails. Applying restraints (Choice A) is not recommended as it can cause harm during a seizure. Using soft wristbands (Choice B) may not provide adequate protection against injury. Administering sedatives (Choice D) is not typically indicated for managing tonic-clonic seizures as they require specific anti-seizure medications.
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