Nursing Elites

1. A patient is admitted with signs of stroke. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse anticipate as the priority?

• A. CT scan
• B. MRI
• C. X-ray
• D. Ultrasound

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CT scan is the priority diagnostic test to identify and confirm the location and severity of a stroke.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV. Available is furosemide 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 5

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the mL needed, divide the total dose by the dose per mL. In this case, 40 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 4 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL per dose. Choice A, 2 mL, is incorrect because it would only deliver 20 mg of furosemide, which is half the required dose. Choices B and D are also incorrect as they do not provide the accurate amount needed to achieve the 40 mg dosage.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) medication. What action should the healthcare professional take to ensure patient safety?

• A. Ensure the medication is administered at the correct time.
• B. Verify the patient's identification using two identifiers.
• C. Prepare the medication at the healthcare professional's station.
• D. Ensure the medication is administered within 30 minutes of the scheduled time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying the patient's identity using two identifiers is crucial to ensure the right patient receives the right medication. This process helps prevent medication errors by confirming the patient's identity through at least two unique identifiers, such as name, date of birth, or medical record number. Choice A is not directly related to ensuring patient safety during medication administration. Choice C is incorrect as medications should be prepared in a sterile environment, not just at the healthcare professional's station. Choice D is not a safe practice as medications should be administered at the scheduled time to maintain therapeutic effectiveness.

4. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being cared for by a nurse. What is the most appropriate action to improve the patient's oxygenation?

• A. Encourage the patient to use incentive spirometry.
• B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula as prescribed.
• C. Assist the patient with coughing and deep breathing exercises.
• D. Position the patient in a high Fowler's position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen via nasal cannula as prescribed is the most appropriate action to improve the patient's oxygenation in COPD. Oxygen therapy helps maintain adequate oxygen levels in the blood, which is crucial for managing COPD. Encouraging the use of incentive spirometry, assisting with coughing and deep breathing exercises, and positioning the patient in high Fowler's position are all beneficial interventions, but administering oxygen is the priority for immediate oxygenation support in COPD.

5. A patient is at risk for impaired skin integrity. What is the priority intervention for the nurse?

• A. Turn and reposition the patient every 2 hours.
• B. Apply a moisture barrier to the patient's skin.
• C. Massage the patient's skin to promote circulation.
• D. Apply a heating pad to the patient's skin to increase blood flow.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to turn and reposition the patient every 2 hours. This intervention is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers and maintaining skin integrity by relieving pressure on bony prominences. Applying a moisture barrier (Choice B) is important for moisture-associated skin damage but is not the priority in this case. Massaging the patient's skin (Choice C) can potentially cause friction and shear, increasing the risk of skin breakdown. Applying a heating pad (Choice D) can lead to burns or thermal injuries, exacerbating skin integrity issues.

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