Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a hip fracture. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Hip pallor
• B. Leg abduction
• C. Muscle spasms
• D. Leg lengthening

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle spasms are a common finding in clients with hip fractures. The muscle spasms occur due to the body's natural response to the injury, causing involuntary contractions. Hip pallor (Choice A) is not typically associated with hip fractures. Leg abduction (Choice B) and leg lengthening (Choice D) are not typical findings in clients with hip fractures, as the fracture usually results in limited range of motion and shortening of the affected limb.

2. Which action by the nurse represents the ethical principle of beneficence?

• A. Ensuring all clients are treated fairly
• B. Preventing harm by providing accurate information
• C. Allowing the client to refuse treatment
• D. Ensuring the client's family agrees with the treatment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Beneficence is the ethical principle of doing good or acting in the best interest of the client. Preventing harm by providing accurate information and necessary care aligns with the principle of beneficence, as it focuses on promoting the well-being and safety of the client. Choices A, C, and D do not directly reflect the concept of beneficence. Ensuring all clients are treated fairly relates more to justice, allowing the client to refuse treatment pertains to autonomy, and ensuring the client's family agrees with the treatment involves collaboration and communication but not specifically beneficence.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the catheter requires irrigation?

• A. Bladder scan shows 525 mL
• B. Absent urinary output for 1 hour
• C. Cloudy urine
• D. Bloody urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A large bladder scan result (525 mL) suggests catheter blockage and may require irrigation to resolve. Choice B (absent urinary output for 1 hour) could indicate a different issue such as urinary retention but does not specifically indicate the need for catheter irrigation. Choices C (cloudy urine) and D (bloody urine) may suggest infection or other urinary issues, but they do not directly indicate the need for catheter irrigation.

4. A client who has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should expect dark tarry stools.
• B. I should expect increased bruising.
• C. I will not get as many infections.
• D. I will expect the color of my urine to be amber.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When taking ferrous sulfate, dark tarry stools can occur as a common side effect due to the iron content in the medication. This is a normal response to the medication and not a cause for concern. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased bruising, reduced infections, and amber-colored urine are not expected side effects of ferrous sulfate.

5. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse verify with a provider?

• A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
• B. Hyoscyamine
• C. Oxybutynin
• D. Phenazopyridine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin can worsen urinary retention, so the nurse should verify this prescription with the provider. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Choice A) is a common antibiotic used to treat UTIs and does not require verification. Hyoscyamine (Choice B) is an anticholinergic medication used for bladder spasms and does not typically worsen UTI symptoms. Phenazopyridine (Choice D) is a urinary analgesic that helps relieve pain, burning, and discomfort caused by a UTI, which may not necessarily require verification in this scenario.

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