Nursing Elites

1. The psychosocial task of a 55 year old adult client is:

• A. Industry vs. Inferiority
• B. Intimacy vs. Isolation
• C. Integrity vs. Despair
• D. Generativity vs. Stagnation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nursing interventions should be grounded in a deep understanding of the physiological processes involved, ensuring that care provided is both effective and efficient.

2. When is Prevident indicated?

• A. High caries risk
• B. Crown and bridge work
• C. Orthodontic decalcification
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prevident is indicated for all the situations listed in the choices. It is recommended for patients with a high risk of caries to reduce the risk of tooth decay. It is also used in dental procedures like crown and bridge work to strengthen enamel and prevent cavities. Furthermore, it is utilized for orthodontic decalcification to aid in remineralizing the tooth structure and prevent further damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' While choices A, B, and C are individually correct, selecting 'All of the above' is the most appropriate as it encompasses all the possible indications for Prevident.

3. Which of the following proteins is iron a component of, responsible for the transport of oxygen in the bloodstream?

• A. hemoglobin
• B. transferrin
• C. myoglobin
• D. hepcidin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is the protein found in red blood cells that is responsible for carrying oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body. Iron is a crucial component of hemoglobin, binding to oxygen and allowing for its transport. Choice B, transferrin, is involved in iron transport in the blood but not in oxygen transport. Choice C, myoglobin, is a protein found in muscle cells that stores oxygen for muscle use, not transportation in the bloodstream. Choice D, hepcidin, is a peptide hormone that regulates iron absorption in the intestines and iron distribution in the body, but it is not directly involved in oxygen transport.

4. What gastrointestinal side effects are associated with antisecretory drugs such as proton pump inhibitors?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Gastroparesis
• C. Dumping syndrome
• D. Flatulence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are a type of antisecretory drug that can cause nausea and vomiting by altering stomach acid production. These are common side effects associated with PPIs. Gastroparesis (B) is a condition that affects the stomach muscles and prevents proper stomach emptying; it is not a side effect of PPIs. Dumping syndrome (C) is a group of symptoms that can occur after having part of your stomach removed and is not a side effect of PPIs. While some people might experience flatulence (D) when taking PPIs, it is not as commonly associated with these drugs as the effects of nausea and vomiting.

5. How is an ear infection that persists for less than 14 days classified?

• A. Mastoiditis
• B. Chronic Ear Infection
• C. Acute Ear Infection
• D. Otitis Media

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acute Ear Infection is the correct answer because it typically refers to an infection that is short-lived and often severe, typically lasting less than 14 days. Chronic Ear Infection (Choice B) is incorrect as it refers to an ear infection that lasts for a long time or recurs often, typically more than three months. Mastoiditis (Choice A) is a complication of a middle ear infection and not an ear infection itself. Otitis Media (Choice D) is a general term for inflammation or infection in the middle ear, which can be either acute or chronic, so it's not specific enough to be the correct answer. Understanding the duration and severity of symptoms can help in identifying the type of ear infection, facilitating appropriate treatment and prevention of complications.

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