Nursing Elites

1. What type of drug therapy is typically administered immediately after a heart attack?

• A. Antilipemic drugs
• B. Corticosteroids
• C. Diuretics
• D. Thrombolytic drugs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Thrombolytic drugs are typically administered immediately after a heart attack to dissolve the clot blocking the coronary artery and restore blood flow to the heart muscle. Antilipemic drugs are used to lower lipid levels and prevent atherosclerosis, but they are not typically administered immediately after a heart attack. Corticosteroids are used to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune response, which are not immediate concerns after a heart attack. Diuretics are used to reduce fluid build-up and lower blood pressure, but these are not the primary concerns immediately following a heart attack.

2. A client with diabetes is being taught by a nurse about the dietary source that should provide the greatest percentage of calories. Which of the following statements indicates the client understands the teaching?

• A. "Most of my calories each day should be from fats."?
• B. "I should eat more calories from complex carbohydrates than anything else."?
• C. "Simple sugars are needed more than other calorie sources."?
• D. "Protein should be my main source of calories."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is '"I should eat more calories from complex carbohydrates than anything else."?' Clients with diabetes should focus on complex carbohydrates as their primary calorie source because they have a lower impact on blood sugar levels compared to simple sugars or fats. Choice A is incorrect because a high intake of fats can lead to various health issues. Choice C is incorrect because simple sugars can cause rapid spikes in blood sugar levels. Choice D is incorrect as while protein is important, it should not be the main source of calories for someone with diabetes.

3. Which type of nutritional deficiency results from inadequate absorption?

• A. Unmeasurable
• B. Primary deficiency
• C. Secondary deficiency
• D. Codependent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Secondary deficiency. A nutritional deficiency resulting from decreased intake is called a primary deficiency. On the other hand, a secondary deficiency refers to a vitamin deficiency caused by inadequate absorption or use, increased requirements, excretion, or destruction. Choice A, 'Unmeasurable,' is incorrect as it does not describe a type of nutritional deficiency. Choice B, 'Primary deficiency,' is incorrect as it refers to a deficiency caused by decreased intake, not inadequate absorption. Choice D, 'Codependent,' is incorrect as it is unrelated to the context of nutritional deficiencies.

4. When is Prevident indicated?

• A. High caries risk
• B. Crown and bridge work
• C. Orthodontic decalcification
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prevident is indicated for all the situations listed in the choices. It is recommended for patients with a high risk of caries to reduce the risk of tooth decay. It is also used in dental procedures like crown and bridge work to strengthen enamel and prevent cavities. Furthermore, it is utilized for orthodontic decalcification to aid in remineralizing the tooth structure and prevent further damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' While choices A, B, and C are individually correct, selecting 'All of the above' is the most appropriate as it encompasses all the possible indications for Prevident.

5. How many diet-related major risk factors for coronary heart disease does Mrs. Winslow have?

• A. 1
• B. 4
• C. 2
• D. 3

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mrs. Winslow has four major diet-related risk factors for coronary heart disease: high total cholesterol, high LDL cholesterol, high triglycerides, and low HDL cholesterol. Choice A is incorrect because there are more than one risk factor present. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not account for the total number of diet-related major risk factors identified.

Similar Questions