Nursing Elites

1. The Practical Nurse Course is a training program conducted in phases that cover what period of time?

• A. 46 weeks
• B. 18 months
• C. 6 weeks
• D. 52 weeks

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 52 weeks. The Practical Nurse Course is typically conducted over a period of 52 weeks. This duration allows for comprehensive training in various aspects of nursing. Choice A, 46 weeks, is incorrect as it falls short of the standard duration of the course. Choice B, 18 months, is incorrect as it represents a longer timeframe than the typical duration of the course. Choice C, 6 weeks, is incorrect as it is too short for the comprehensive training provided in a Practical Nurse Course.

2. Determining nursing care priorities is a part of which of the following steps in determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?

• A. Evaluation
• B. Planning
• C. Implementation
• D. Assessment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Planning in nursing involves setting priorities based on the patient's needs, resources, and desired outcomes. It includes organizing and coordinating care activities to achieve the identified goals. Therefore, determining nursing care priorities is a key aspect of the planning phase.\n Incorrect Rationales:\n- Evaluation (Choice A) comes after implementing the care plan to assess the effectiveness of interventions and make necessary adjustments.\n- Implementation (Choice C) is the phase where the care plan is put into action, involving carrying out the nursing interventions designed during the planning phase.\n- Assessment (Choice D) is the initial step in the nursing process where data about the patient's health status is collected and analyzed to identify needs and formulate a care plan. It precedes planning and determining care priorities.

3. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

• A. Sitting
• B. Prone
• C. Sidelying
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.

4. Which medication should a patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease avoid?

• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Antacids
• C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
• D. Antihistamines

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease should avoid Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) because they can worsen peptic ulcers due to their effects on the stomach lining. Acetaminophen (Choice A) is a safer alternative for pain relief in such patients as it does not have the same ulcerogenic effects. Antacids (Choice B) can actually help alleviate symptoms by neutralizing stomach acid and are generally safe to use. Antihistamines (Choice D) are not known to exacerbate peptic ulcers and can be used safely for conditions like allergies.

5. Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of:

• A. Protein
• B. Sodium
• C. Cholesterol
• D. Fat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of fat because high-fat foods can trigger gallbladder symptoms such as pain and indigestion. While proteins, sodium, and cholesterol may also need to be moderated for overall health, reducing fat intake is particularly crucial for managing gallbladder issues.

Similar Questions