Nursing Elites

1. The Practical Nurse Course is a training program conducted in phases that cover what period of time?

• A. 46 weeks
• B. 18 months
• C. 6 weeks
• D. 52 weeks

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 52 weeks. The Practical Nurse Course is typically conducted over a period of 52 weeks. This duration allows for comprehensive training in various aspects of nursing. Choice A, 46 weeks, is incorrect as it falls short of the standard duration of the course. Choice B, 18 months, is incorrect as it represents a longer timeframe than the typical duration of the course. Choice C, 6 weeks, is incorrect as it is too short for the comprehensive training provided in a Practical Nurse Course.

2. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Educate personnel on UCMJ'?

• A. Accountability
• B. Personal/professional development
• C. Individual training
• D. Military appearance/physical condition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Personal/professional development. Educating personnel on UCMJ falls under the category of personal/professional development as it involves enhancing their understanding of the Uniform Code of Military Justice. This category focuses on improving individuals' knowledge and skills related to their professional roles and responsibilities. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to educating personnel on UCMJ. Accountability pertains to being answerable for one's actions, individual training focuses on specific skill development, and military appearance/physical condition relates to grooming standards and fitness rather than UCMJ education.

3. The client is admitted to the emergency department complaining of acute epigastric pain and reports vomiting a large amount of bright red blood at home. Which interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Assess the client’s vital signs
• B. Start an IV with an 18-gauge needle
• C. Begin iced saline lavage
• D. A, B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's presentation of acute epigastric pain and vomiting bright red blood indicates a potential gastrointestinal bleeding emergency. Assessing the client's vital signs is essential to monitor their hemodynamic status. Starting an IV with an 18-gauge needle is crucial to establish access for potential fluid resuscitation or blood transfusion. Beginning iced saline lavage is not appropriate in this situation and could potentially delay necessary interventions. Therefore, the correct interventions for the nurse to implement are to assess the client’s vital signs and start an IV, making option D the most appropriate choice. Options A and B are correct because they are essential initial steps in managing gastrointestinal bleeding. Option C is incorrect as iced saline lavage is not indicated and may not address the urgent needs of the client in this critical situation.

4. Which risk factor would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with pancreatic cancer?

• A. Chewing tobacco
• B. Low-fat diet
• C. Chronic alcoholism
• D. Exposure to industrial chemicals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chronic alcoholism. Chronic alcoholism is a significant risk factor for pancreatic cancer as alcohol has a damaging effect on the pancreas. Chewing tobacco (choice A) is associated with oral and throat cancers, not specifically pancreatic cancer. A low-fat diet (choice B) is generally considered a healthier choice and not a direct risk factor for pancreatic cancer. Exposure to industrial chemicals (choice D) may be linked to other types of cancers but is not a major risk factor for pancreatic cancer.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly lead to hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels in the body. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is the opposite, indicating high potassium levels. Hypercalcemia (choice B) refers to elevated calcium levels, not typically associated with diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (choice C) is low magnesium levels and can also be a consequence of diuretic use, but potassium imbalance is more common.

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