Nursing Elites

1. The Practical Nurse Course is a training program conducted in phases that cover what period of time?

• A. 46 weeks
• B. 18 months
• C. 6 weeks
• D. 52 weeks

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 52 weeks. The Practical Nurse Course is typically conducted over a period of 52 weeks. This duration allows for comprehensive training in various aspects of nursing. Choice A, 46 weeks, is incorrect as it falls short of the standard duration of the course. Choice B, 18 months, is incorrect as it represents a longer timeframe than the typical duration of the course. Choice C, 6 weeks, is incorrect as it is too short for the comprehensive training provided in a Practical Nurse Course.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who goes into ventricular tachycardia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Call a code immediately
• B. Assess the client for a pulse
• C. Begin chest compressions
• D. Continue to monitor the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention when a client goes into ventricular tachycardia is to assess for a pulse. This is crucial as the presence or absence of a pulse guides subsequent actions. Initiating chest compressions or calling a code should only be done after confirming the absence of a pulse. Continuing to monitor the client without checking for a pulse delays potentially life-saving interventions.

3. Which type of anemia is associated with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Iron-deficiency anemia
• B. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
• C. Aplastic anemia
• D. Erythropoietin deficiency anemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Erythropoietin deficiency anemia. Chronic kidney disease often leads to anemia due to decreased production of erythropoietin. This hormone, produced by the kidneys, stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Iron-deficiency anemia (choice A) is more commonly caused by insufficient dietary iron intake or chronic blood loss. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (choice B) is usually due to inadequate dietary intake, malabsorption, or pernicious anemia. Aplastic anemia (choice C) is a bone marrow failure disorder characterized by pancytopenia (decreased red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets) rather than a deficiency in erythropoietin production.

4. A 31-year-old client is seeking contraceptive information. Before responding to the client’s questions about contraceptives, the nurse obtains a health history. What factor in the client’s history indicates to the nurse that oral contraceptives are contraindicated?

• A. More than 30 years of age
• B. Had two multiple pregnancies
• C. Smokes 1 pack of cigarettes a day
• D. Has a history of borderline hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Smoking, especially in clients over 30, increases the risk of thromboembolic events, making oral contraceptives contraindicated. Choice A is incorrect as age alone is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives. Choice B is incorrect as having multiple pregnancies is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives. Choice D is incorrect as borderline hypertension is not a strict contraindication for oral contraceptives.

5. The nurse writes a problem of “potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation” for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Instruct the client to delay intercourse until menses
• B. Schedule the client for frequent pelvic sonograms
• C. Explain that the infusion therapy will take 21 days
• D. Discuss that this may cause an ectopic pregnancy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (choice A) is not directly related to monitoring or managing ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (choice C) is not relevant to the potential complication of ovarian hyperstimulation. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (choice D) is important but not the most appropriate intervention for managing ovarian hyperstimulation.

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