Nursing Elites

1. Enteral feedings may be appropriate for patients with:

• A. Acute cholecystitis
• B. Hepatic encephalopathy
• C. Ulcerative colitis in remission
• D. Acute exacerbation of Crohn’s disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Enteral feedings are commonly used in patients with Crohn’s disease during acute exacerbations to provide adequate nutrition while resting the bowel. Acute cholecystitis, hepatic encephalopathy, and ulcerative colitis in remission wouldn't typically require enteral feedings as the primary nutritional support. Acute cholecystitis may necessitate fasting and intravenous fluids, hepatic encephalopathy may require dietary modifications but not enteral feedings, and patients with ulcerative colitis in remission usually have their nutritional needs met through a regular diet.

2. In a routine sputum analysis, which of the following indicates proper nursing action before sputum collection?

• A. Secure a clean container
• B. Discard the container if the outside becomes dirty
• C. Rinse the client's mouth with Listerine before collection
• D. Tell the client that 4 tablespoons of sputum are needed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to secure a clean container before sputum collection. This is essential to prevent contamination of the specimen, ensuring accurate test results and avoiding the introduction of external particles or bacteria. Choice B is incorrect because discarding the container if the outside becomes dirty is not necessary; the cleanliness of the inside is crucial. Choice C is incorrect as rinsing the client's mouth with Listerine before collection may introduce unwanted substances that can affect the test results. Choice D is incorrect as the amount of sputum required can vary depending on the test, and specifying a specific amount without medical guidance is not appropriate.

3. The nurse on the medical/surgical unit cares for a client with a diagnosis of cerebrovascular accident (CVA). The nursing assessment of the client’s neurological status should include which of the following? (Select all that apply)

• A. Obtain the pulses in all four extremities
• B. Ask the client to grasp and squeeze two fingers on each of the nurse’s hands
• C. Determine the client’s orientation to person, place, and time
• D. B, C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D' because assessing grasp strength (choice B) and orientation to person, place, and time (choice C) are crucial components of a neurological assessment following a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Pulse assessment in all four extremities (choice A) is not directly related to a neurological assessment and is more pertinent to vascular status. Therefore, choices A and D are incorrect in this context.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.

5. What is a good source of potassium and can be related to increased excretion?

• A. Potassium
• B. Increased excretion
• C. Broccoli
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Broccoli is a good source of potassium and can contribute to increased excretion. While potassium itself is a mineral and increased excretion can be related to dietary intake, the specific relationship mentioned in the text is about broccoli being a good source of potassium and having a potential impact on excretion.

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