ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5
1. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Monitor the urine for bright-red bleeding
- B. Evaluate the calorie count of the 500-mg protein diet
- C. Assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema
- D. Monitor for a high serum albumin level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assessing the client’s sacrum for dependent edema is crucial in the care plan for nephritic syndrome as it is common due to protein loss. Dependent edema occurs as a result of decreased oncotic pressure from protein loss in the urine. Monitoring urine for bright-red bleeding (choice A) is more relevant to conditions like glomerulonephritis. Evaluating calorie count or protein intake (choice B) is important for other conditions but not specifically for nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level (choice D) is not typically part of the immediate care plan for nephritic syndrome.
2. For a patient on lithium therapy, which dietary recommendation is essential?
- A. Increase caffeine intake
- B. Increase sodium intake
- C. Increase protein intake
- D. Increase fiber intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to increase sodium intake. For patients on lithium therapy, maintaining consistent sodium intake is crucial to avoid fluctuations in drug levels. Increasing caffeine intake (choice A) is not recommended as it can interfere with lithium levels. While protein intake (choice C) is important for overall health, it is not specifically essential for patients on lithium therapy. Similarly, increasing fiber intake (choice D) is beneficial but not a primary concern for patients on lithium therapy.
3. The nurse counsels a client diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse determines that teaching is effective if the client selects which of the following menus?
- A. Roast beef, brown rice, green beans, carrot and raisin salad, and milk
- B. Cheese pizza, tossed green salad, oatmeal-raisin cookie, and lemonade
- C. Two scrambled eggs, bacon, white toast with strawberry jam, and coffee
- D. Corn flakes with milk, whole wheat toast, and orange juice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Roast beef is high in heme iron, which is best absorbed and helps treat iron deficiency anemia. Choices B, C, and D do not contain significant sources of iron, especially heme iron, making them less effective in treating iron deficiency anemia.
4. A family came to the emergency department with complaints of food poisoning. Which client should the nurse see first?
- A. 32-year-old with diarrhea for 6 hours
- B. 2-year-old with 1 wet diaper in 24 hours
- C. 40-year-old with abdominal cramping
- D. 10-year-old who is nauseated
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cases of food poisoning, a 2-year-old with reduced urine output is a critical finding indicating dehydration, requiring immediate attention to prevent complications. The reduced urine output is a sign of decreased fluid intake or increased fluid loss, putting the child at high risk for dehydration. This client should be seen first to assess hydration status, initiate necessary interventions, and prevent further complications. While the other symptoms presented by the other clients are concerning, the 2-year-old's decreased urine output poses the most immediate threat to their well-being.
5. A nurse administers albuterol to a child with asthma. For what common side effect should the nurse monitor the child?
- A. Flushing
- B. Dyspnea
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Tachycardia. Albuterol, a bronchodilator used to treat asthma, commonly causes tachycardia as a side effect. Flushing (choice A) is not a typical side effect of albuterol. Dyspnea (choice B) refers to difficulty breathing, which is a symptom of asthma but not a common side effect of albuterol. Hypotension (choice D) is low blood pressure, which is not a common side effect associated with albuterol use.
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