under the health services support area concept how is the medical care under the medcom divided

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5

1. Under the health services support area concept, how is the medical care under the MEDCOM divided?

A. Six geographical regions of the United States with command authority in each region
B. Five levels of health service support, each providing different levels of health care services
C. Primary and secondary health care regions, each containing a MEDDAC or MEDCEN
D. Eight geographical areas of responsibility designated as health services support regions, each of which is subdivided into two or more health service areas

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Under the health services support area concept, medical care under MEDCOM is divided into eight geographical areas of responsibility. Each of these areas is designated as a health services support region, and they are further subdivided into two or more health service areas. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe how the medical care under MEDCOM is divided.

2. Why may patients with hiatal hernia develop anemia?

A. Iron absorption is reduced
B. Gastritis may cause bleeding
C. Iron stores turn over more quickly
D. Patients have an aversion to foods that are good sources of iron

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gastritis may cause bleeding. In patients with hiatal hernia, gastritis can occur due to the reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus. This gastritis can lead to gastrointestinal bleeding, resulting in anemia. Choice A is incorrect because iron absorption is not necessarily reduced in hiatal hernia. Choice C is incorrect as iron stores turnover rate is not directly related to the development of anemia in this context. Choice D is incorrect as an aversion to iron-rich foods is not a common reason for anemia in patients with hiatal hernia.

3. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?

A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization
D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. This client situation presents with concerning clinical signs such as no urine output post kidney transplant, elevated temperature, tachycardia, hypotension, and restlessness, suggestive of acute renal failure and sepsis. These signs necessitate immediate intervention by the rapid response team (RRT) to address the potentially life-threatening conditions. Choice B is incorrect as the client is stable after chest tube removal and primarily anxious about going home. Choice C is incorrect as the client's symptoms are related to postoperative recovery and boredom, not indicating an urgent need for RRT consultation. Choice D is incorrect as the client post hip repair is stable, alert, and interacting normally, without signs of acute deterioration requiring RRT involvement.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypomagnesemia
D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.

5. A patient with hypothyroidism should be advised to consume more of which nutrient?

A. Calcium
B. Iodine
C. Vitamin C
D. Iron

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Iodine. Iodine is essential for thyroid hormone production, and its deficiency can contribute to hypothyroidism. While calcium, vitamin C, and iron are important for overall health, they are not specifically related to thyroid function. Calcium is more associated with bone health, vitamin C with immune function, and iron with red blood cell production.