Nursing Elites

1. Which nutrient deficiency is most likely to be seen in patients with chronic alcoholism?

• A. Vitamin C
• B. Vitamin D
• C. Vitamin B12
• D. Vitamin B1

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In patients with chronic alcoholism, the most likely nutrient deficiency is Vitamin B1 (thiamine), not Vitamin B12. Chronic alcoholism often leads to Vitamin B1 deficiency, causing conditions like Wernicke's encephalopathy. While other vitamin deficiencies can also occur in chronic alcoholism, such as Vitamin C and Vitamin D, Vitamin B1 deficiency is more commonly associated with alcoholism.

2. The nurse writes a problem of “potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation” for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Instruct the client to delay intercourse until menses
• B. Schedule the client for frequent pelvic sonograms
• C. Explain that the infusion therapy will take 21 days
• D. Discuss that this may cause an ectopic pregnancy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (choice A) is not directly related to monitoring or managing ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (choice C) is not relevant to the potential complication of ovarian hyperstimulation. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (choice D) is important but not the most appropriate intervention for managing ovarian hyperstimulation.

3. A client who _____ diet requires _____ amounts of vitamin C.

• A. Follows a vegan diet
• B. Smokes cigarettes
• C. Follows a vegetarian diet
• D. Follows a ketogenic diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients who smoke require more vitamin C due to increased oxidative stress and depletion of vitamin C. Smoking leads to the generation of free radicals in the body, causing oxidative stress and consuming higher levels of antioxidants like vitamin C. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the increased need for vitamin C as seen in smokers.

4. Which signs/symptoms would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with an insulinoma?

• A. Nervousness, jitteriness, and diaphoresis
• B. Flushed skin, dry mouth, and tented skin turgor
• C. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
• D. Hypertension, tachycardia, and feeling hot

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Insulinomas lead to excessive insulin production, causing hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include nervousness, jitteriness, and diaphoresis. These symptoms result from the low blood sugar levels. Flushed skin, dry mouth, and tented skin turgor (choice B) are more indicative of dehydration. Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia (choice C) are classic symptoms of diabetes mellitus, not insulinomas. Hypertension, tachycardia, and feeling hot (choice D) are not typical symptoms of insulinomas.

5. The nurse is administering a beta blocker to the client diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which data would cause the nurse to question administering the medication?

• A. The client’s BP is 110/70
• B. The client’s potassium level is 3.4 mEq/L
• C. The client has a barky cough
• D. The client’s apical pulse is 56

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A beta blocker should be withheld if the apical pulse is below 60, as it can further decrease the heart rate. Choice A is not a reason to question administering the medication as the blood pressure is within a normal range for a client with essential hypertension. Choice B is not directly related to the administration of a beta blocker. Choice C suggests a potential side effect of an ACE inhibitor, not a beta blocker.

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