Nursing Elites

1. People at higher risk for drug-nutrient interactions include:

• A. Infants
• B. People with diabetes
• C. Women of childbearing age
• D. Older men and women

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Older men and women are at a higher risk for drug-nutrient interactions due to factors like polypharmacy, changes in metabolism, and physiological changes associated with aging. Infants are less likely to be exposed to a wide range of medications, reducing their risk. People with diabetes and women of childbearing age may have specific nutrient needs or considerations, but they are not typically at a higher risk for drug-nutrient interactions compared to older adults.

2. A client diagnosed with acute pancreatitis has developed a pseudocyst that ruptures. Which procedure should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider ordering?

• A. Paracentesis
• B. Chest tube insertion
• C. Lumbar puncture
• D. Biopsy of the pancreas

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chest tube insertion. A chest tube may be needed if a pancreatic pseudocyst ruptures into the pleural space, causing a pleural effusion. Paracentesis (choice A) involves the removal of fluid from the abdominal cavity, not typically indicated for a pancreatic pseudocyst. Lumbar puncture (choice C) is a procedure to collect cerebrospinal fluid from the spinal canal, not relevant to a pancreatic pseudocyst. Biopsy of the pancreas (choice D) is a diagnostic procedure to obtain tissue samples for examination and is not typically done in the context of a ruptured pseudocyst.

3. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Buildup of ammonia in the body
• B. Buildup of urea in the body
• C. Fatty infiltration of the liver
• D. Jaundice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by the buildup of ammonia in the body. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism, normally gets converted to urea in the liver for excretion. However, in liver dysfunction, such as cirrhosis, the liver cannot effectively convert ammonia to urea, leading to its accumulation in the body and subsequently causing hepatic encephalopathy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.

4. The HCP orders cultures of the urethral urine, bladder urine, and prostatic fluid. Which instructions would the nurse teach to achieve the first two (2) specimens?

• A. Collect the first 15 mL in one jar and then the next 50 mL in another
• B. Collect three (3) early morning, clean voided urine specimens
• C. Collect the specimens after the HCP massages the prostate
• D. Collect a routine urine specimen for analysis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To obtain accurate cultures of urethral and bladder urine, the nurse should instruct the patient to collect the first 15 mL of urine in one container and the subsequent 50 mL in another. This method ensures that the specimens are separated appropriately for analysis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because collecting three early morning urine specimens, massaging the prostate, or collecting a routine urine specimen would not provide the specific separation of urethral and bladder urine required for this particular test.

5. The nurse is aware that norepinephrine is secreted by which endocrine gland?

• A. The pancreas
• B. The adrenal cortex
• C. The adrenal medulla
• D. The anterior pituitary gland

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Norepinephrine is indeed secreted by the adrenal medulla, making choice C the correct answer. The adrenal medulla is part of the adrenal glands, located on top of the kidneys. Norepinephrine is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response, helping to prepare the body to react to stress. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as norepinephrine is not secreted by the pancreas, adrenal cortex, or the anterior pituitary gland.

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