Nursing Elites

1. Clinitest is used in testing the urine of a client for glucose. Which of the following, if committed by a nurse, indicates an error?

• A. Specimen is collected after meals
• B. The nurse puts the Clinitest tablet into a test tube
• C. She added 5 drops of urine and 10 drops of water
• D. If the color becomes orange or red, it is considered

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When conducting a Clinitest for testing urinary glucose levels, it is essential to add the correct amounts of urine and Clinitest reagent as instructed. Adding more water than urine could dilute the sample, leading to inaccurate test results. It's important to follow the correct ratio of drops specified in the instructions for an accurate reading. Choice A is incorrect as the specimen should be collected before meals for accurate results. Choice B is incorrect as it should be the Clinitest tablet, not the clingiest tablet. Choice D is incorrect as the statement is incomplete and lacks clarity.

2. The HCP orders cultures of the urethral urine, bladder urine, and prostatic fluid. Which instructions would the nurse teach to achieve the first two (2) specimens?

• A. Collect the first 15 mL in one jar and then the next 50 mL in another
• B. Collect three (3) early morning, clean voided urine specimens
• C. Collect the specimens after the HCP massages the prostate
• D. Collect a routine urine specimen for analysis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to collect the first 15 mL in one jar and then the next 50 mL in another. This method allows for accurate cultures of urethral and bladder urine. Choice B is incorrect because it does not specify the correct method for collecting urethral and bladder urine separately. Choice C is incorrect because prostatic fluid is a separate specimen that does not require prostatic massage for collection. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests collecting a routine urine specimen, which does not fulfill the HCP's orders for specific cultures.

3. A client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia is expected to exhibit which clinical finding?

• A. Crying
• B. Self-mutilation
• C. Immobile posturing
• D. Repetitious activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, immobile posturing is a common clinical finding where the patient may maintain a rigid or bizarre posture for prolonged periods. Crying (Choice A) is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Self-mutilation (Choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions like borderline personality disorder. Repetitious activities (Choice D) are not a hallmark symptom of catatonic schizophrenia.

4. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

• A. Sitting
• B. Prone
• C. Sidelying
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.

5. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant and interferes with the action of:

• A. Platelets
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Calcium
• D. Vitamin B12

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin K. Warfarin inhibits the action of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting. By interfering with the production of certain clotting factors, warfarin helps prevent blood clots. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin primarily affects the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors and not platelets, calcium, or vitamin B12.

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