ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4
1. What is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?
- A. Increasing calcium intake
- B. Increasing phosphorus intake
- C. Decreasing calcium intake
- D. Administering phosphate binders
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering phosphate binders is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia. Phosphate binders work by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not a primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia and can actually exacerbate the condition by potentially raising calcium levels. Increasing phosphorus intake (Choice B) is contraindicated in hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (Choice C) may help manage hypercalcemia but is not the primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia.
2. The nurse enters a client’s room and the client is demanding release from the hospital. The nurse reviews the client’s record and notes that the client was admitted 2 days ago for treatment of an anxiety disorder, and the admission was voluntary. Which intervention should the nurse initiate first?
- A. Telephone the client’s family and have them persuade the client to stay
- B. Have the client read and sign all the appropriate self-discharge papers
- C. Explain to the client that he cannot leave because he asked for treatment
- D. Notify the client’s healthcare provider of the client’s stated intent to leave the hospital
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to initiate first is to notify the client’s healthcare provider of the client’s intention to leave the hospital. This is important to ensure that the client’s care and safety are appropriately managed. Option A is incorrect as involving the family without proper assessment or intervention could violate the client's autonomy. Option B is incorrect because it does not involve the healthcare provider in the decision-making process. Option C is incorrect as it does not address the client's rights to make decisions about their own care.
3. The nurse supervises care of a client who is receiving enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)
- A. The nursing assistant aspirates and measures the amount of the gastric aspirate
- B. The nursing assistant elevates the head of the client’s bed 30 degrees
- C. The nursing assistant warms the formula to room temperature
- D. B, C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. Warming the formula to room temperature is essential to prevent discomfort and complications. Aspirating and measuring the gastric aspirate is not a recommended nursing action for monitoring enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube, as it can introduce the risk of introducing contaminants into the feeding tube. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect, making choice D the correct answer.
4. Six hours after major abdominal surgery, a male client complains of severe abdominal pain; is pale and perspiring; has a thready, rapid pulse; and states he feels faint. The nurse checks the client’s medication administration record and determines that the client receives another injection of pain medication in an hour. What is the appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Explain to the client that it is too early to have an injection for pain
- B. Call the practitioner, report the client’s symptoms, and obtain further orders
- C. Reposition the client for greater comfort and turn on the television as a distraction
- D. Prepare the injection and administer it to the client early because of the severe pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is option B: Call the practitioner, report the client’s symptoms, and obtain further orders. The client is displaying symptoms that indicate potential complications, such as internal bleeding, which require immediate medical evaluation. Option A is incorrect because the client's condition suggests a more urgent need for assessment. Option C is inappropriate as it does not address the seriousness of the client's symptoms. Option D is dangerous and could exacerbate any underlying issue the client may be experiencing.
5. Which medication should a patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease avoid?
- A. Acetaminophen
- B. Antacids
- C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
- D. Antihistamines
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease should avoid Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) because they can worsen peptic ulcers due to their effects on the stomach lining. Acetaminophen (Choice A) is a safer alternative for pain relief in such patients as it does not have the same ulcerogenic effects. Antacids (Choice B) can actually help alleviate symptoms by neutralizing stomach acid and are generally safe to use. Antihistamines (Choice D) are not known to exacerbate peptic ulcers and can be used safely for conditions like allergies.
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