Nursing Elites

1. What is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering phosphate binders is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia. Phosphate binders work by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not a primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia and can actually exacerbate the condition by potentially raising calcium levels. Increasing phosphorus intake (Choice B) is contraindicated in hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (Choice C) may help manage hypercalcemia but is not the primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia.

2. The nurse is told in report that the client has aortic stenosis. Which anatomical position should the nurse auscultate to assess the murmur?

• A. Second intercostal space, right sternal border
• B. Erb’s point
• C. Second intercostal space, left sternal border
• D. Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Second intercostal space, right sternal border. The aortic valve is best auscultated at the second intercostal space, right sternal border, where the murmur of aortic stenosis is heard most clearly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not the recommended anatomical positions for auscultating the murmur of aortic stenosis.

3. In determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient, which step involves assessing whether the care provided is appropriate and effective in relation to the patient's current physiological and psychological status?

• A. Evaluation
• B. Planning
• C. Implementation
• D. Assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Evaluation.' Evaluation in nursing involves assessing whether the care provided is appropriate and effective in relation to the patient's current physiological and psychological status. This step helps determine the outcomes of the care provided and if any changes are needed. Choice B, 'Planning,' focuses on developing a plan of care based on the assessment findings. Choice C, 'Implementation,' involves carrying out the plan of care. Choice D, 'Assessment,' is the initial step in the nursing process that involves gathering data about the patient's health status.

4. A client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia is expected to exhibit which clinical finding?

• A. Crying
• B. Self-mutilation
• C. Immobile posturing
• D. Repetitious activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, immobile posturing is a common clinical finding where the patient may maintain a rigid or bizarre posture for prolonged periods. Crying (Choice A) is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Self-mutilation (Choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions like borderline personality disorder. Repetitious activities (Choice D) are not a hallmark symptom of catatonic schizophrenia.

5. What is the best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination?

• A. Dorsal recumbent
• B. Side lying
• C. Supine
• D. Lithotomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The lithotomy position is the most suitable position for procedures involving vaginal and cervical examination because it provides the best access to the vaginal and cervical regions. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs flexed and feet placed in stirrups, allowing for optimal visualization and access to the area. This position facilitates proper examination, diagnosis, and treatment when working in the gynecological field. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide the necessary exposure and access required for a thorough vaginal and cervical examination. Dorsal recumbent, side lying, and supine positions may limit visibility and hinder the examination process in such cases.

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