which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4

1. What is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering phosphate binders is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia. Phosphate binders work by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not a primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia and can actually exacerbate the condition by potentially raising calcium levels. Increasing phosphorus intake (Choice B) is contraindicated in hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (Choice C) may help manage hypercalcemia but is not the primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia.

2. The client diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught about diet by the nurse. Which diet selection indicates the client understands the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a smoked turkey sandwich with celery sticks and unsweetened tea reflects a balanced and healthy choice suitable for a client with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Turkey is a lean protein choice, celery sticks offer fiber and low calories, and unsweetened tea is a sugar-free beverage. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they include high-carb, high-fat, and sugary options that are not recommended for individuals with diabetes as they can spike blood sugar levels.

3. During peacetime, most CONUS hospital military personnel are organized into what type of organization?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During peacetime, most CONUS hospital military personnel are organized into a TDA (Table of Distribution and Allowances) type of organization. TDA defines the structure and personnel requirements of a unit. Choice A, DVA (Department of Veterans Affairs), is not the typical organizational structure for military hospital personnel. Choice B, TOE (Table of Organization and Equipment), refers to the organization and equipment of a unit, not the personnel organization. Choice D, NDMS (National Disaster Medical System), is a federal program that coordinates medical responses to disasters and emergencies, but it is not the primary organizational structure for military hospital personnel during peacetime.

4. The nurse on the postsurgical unit received a client that was transferred from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) and is planning care for this client. The nurse understands that staff should begin planning for this client’s discharge at which point during the hospitalization?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning should begin as soon as the patient is admitted to the surgical unit to ensure a smooth transition. Option A is the correct choice because it marks the initial point in the hospitalization process where discharge planning should start. Options B, C, and D are not the ideal points to begin discharge planning. Option B only signifies a transfer within the hospital, while Option C relates to the patient's independence in activities of daily living, which is not directly linked to discharge planning. Option D, having the patient assessed by the healthcare provider for the first time after surgery, is unrelated to the timing of discharge planning.

5. The nurse understands that which are characteristics of anthrax? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct characteristics of anthrax are that cutaneous lesions become a black eschar, and flu-like symptoms are typical of pulmonary anthrax. Choice B is incorrect as it only covers the cutaneous anthrax characteristic and does not include the flu-like symptoms of pulmonary anthrax. Choice C is incorrect as gastrointestinal anthrax does not cause 'blood anthrax,' and Choice D is incorrect as flu-like symptoms are not associated with gastrointestinal anthrax.

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