Nursing Elites

1. What is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering phosphate binders is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia. Phosphate binders work by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not a primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia and can actually exacerbate the condition by potentially raising calcium levels. Increasing phosphorus intake (Choice B) is contraindicated in hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (Choice C) may help manage hypercalcemia but is not the primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia.

2. Protecting the rights and privacy of the patient and their family is part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?

• A. Evaluation
• B. Planning
• C. Implementation
• D. Assessment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Implementation. Implementation is the phase where the nursing care plan is put into action, which includes safeguarding the patient's and their family's rights and privacy. Evaluation (choice A) involves reviewing the effectiveness of the care plan, Planning (choice B) is the phase where the care plan is developed, and Assessment (choice D) is the initial step where data about the patient is collected.

3. Which hospital level is a 296-bed facility that is staffed and equipped to provide care for all categories of patients?

• A. FSB
• B. CSH
• C. GH
• D. FH

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is "GH" (General Hospital), which is a 296-bed facility providing comprehensive care for all categories of patients. Choice A, FSB, is incorrect as it does not denote a hospital level. Choice B, CSH, is incorrect as it does not specify a 296-bed facility. Choice D, FH, is incorrect as it does not indicate a hospital level or capacity.

4. A patient with Crohn’s disease is experiencing diarrhea. Which dietary recommendation is appropriate?

• A. High-fiber diet
• B. Low-residue diet
• C. High-fat diet
• D. High-protein diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-residue diet is appropriate for a patient with Crohn’s disease experiencing diarrhea because it helps reduce bowel movements and manage symptoms. Choice A, a high-fiber diet, can exacerbate diarrhea in Crohn’s disease due to increased bulk and fermentation in the gut. Choice C, a high-fat diet, may be hard to digest and can worsen symptoms. Choice D, a high-protein diet, can be taxing on the digestive system and may not provide the relief needed for diarrhea in Crohn’s disease.

5. A patient with a history of gout should avoid which type of food?

• A. Red meat
• B. Chicken
• C. Fish
• D. Dairy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red meat. Red meat is high in purines, which can exacerbate gout attacks. Gout is a form of arthritis that occurs when high levels of uric acid in the blood lead to the formation of urate crystals in the joints. Purine-rich foods can increase uric acid levels, leading to gout symptoms. Chicken and fish are lower in purines compared to red meat, making them better choices for individuals with gout. Dairy products are generally considered safe for gout patients and may even have a protective effect against gout.

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