which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4

1. What is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

A. Increasing calcium intake
B. Increasing phosphorus intake
C. Decreasing calcium intake
D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering phosphate binders is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia. Phosphate binders work by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not a primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia and can actually exacerbate the condition by potentially raising calcium levels. Increasing phosphorus intake (Choice B) is contraindicated in hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (Choice C) may help manage hypercalcemia but is not the primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia.

2. Which of the following is a nonmedical member of a unit who receives additional training in providing care beyond basic first aid procedures?

A. Area support squad leader
B. ATLS specialist
C. Tactical lifesaver
D. Combat lifesaver

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Combat lifesaver.' A Combat Lifesaver is a nonmedical member of a unit who is trained in advanced first aid procedures, providing care beyond basic first aid. Choice A, 'Area support squad leader,' does not specifically refer to someone trained in providing advanced care. Choice B, 'ATLS specialist,' refers to someone trained in Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS), which is beyond the scope of the question. Choice C, 'Tactical lifesaver,' is not a recognized term for the role described in the question.

3. The nurse is caring for a client recovering from intestinal surgery. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?

A. Presence of thin pink drainage in the Jackson Pratt drain
B. Guarding when the nurse touches the abdomen
C. Tenderness around the surgical site during palpation
D. Complaints of chills and feeling feverish

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Complaints of chills and feeling feverish may indicate infection, which requires immediate intervention. In this postoperative setting, the presence of thin pink drainage in the Jackson Pratt drain is expected as part of the normal healing process. Guarding when the nurse touches the abdomen and tenderness around the surgical site are common after surgery and may not require immediate intervention unless they are severe or accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

4. The nurse is administering a beta blocker to the client diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which data would cause the nurse to question administering the medication?

A. The client’s BP is 110/70
B. The client’s potassium level is 3.4 mEq/L
C. The client has a barky cough
D. The client’s apical pulse is 56

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A beta blocker should be withheld if the apical pulse is below 60, as it can further decrease the heart rate. Choice A is not a reason to question administering a beta blocker as the blood pressure is within normal range. Choice B is not directly related to the administration of a beta blocker. Choice C may indicate a potential adverse effect of another medication, but it does not specifically warrant questioning the administration of the beta blocker.

5. A patient with a history of gout should avoid which type of food?

A. Red meat
B. Chicken
C. Fish
D. Dairy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A patient with a history of gout should avoid foods high in purines, which can exacerbate gout attacks. Red meat is particularly high in purines, so it is the type of food that should be avoided. Chicken and fish are lower in purines compared to red meat, making them better choices for individuals with gout. Dairy products are generally not associated with triggering gout attacks, so they can be consumed in moderation by patients with gout.