Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is administering a beta blocker to the client diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which data would cause the nurse to question administering the medication?

• A. The client’s BP is 110/70
• B. The client’s potassium level is 3.4 mEq/L
• C. The client has a barky cough
• D. The client’s apical pulse is 56

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A beta blocker should be withheld if the apical pulse is below 60, as it can further decrease the heart rate. Choice A is not a reason to question administering a beta blocker as the blood pressure is within normal range. Choice B is not directly related to the administration of a beta blocker. Choice C may indicate a potential adverse effect of another medication, but it does not specifically warrant questioning the administration of the beta blocker.

2. In which situation(s) can personal health information be disclosed?

• A. Compliance with legal proceedings
• B. For research purposes in limited circumstances
• C. To a family member or significant other in an emergency
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Personal health information can be disclosed in various situations. Compliance with legal proceedings allows for disclosure under specific legal requirements. Disclosure for research purposes is permitted in limited circumstances with appropriate approvals. In emergencies, information can be shared with family members or significant others. Therefore, all of the choices are correct as they represent valid scenarios for disclosing personal health information.

3. When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, where should the nurse position herself?

• A. At the client's back
• B. At the client's right side
• C. At the client's left side
• D. In front of a sitting client

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, the nurse should position herself in front of a sitting client. This positioning allows for easier access to the neck area and better visualization of any swelling or abnormalities in the lymph nodes. Placing oneself in front of the client ensures proper alignment and comfort for both the nurse and the client during the assessment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as positioning at the back or sides of the client may hinder proper assessment due to limited visibility and access to the neck area.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia. What clinical finding does the nurse expect the client to exhibit?

• A. Crying
• B. Self-mutilation
• C. Immobile posturing
• D. Repetitive activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, clients commonly exhibit immobile posturing, where they may maintain a fixed position for extended periods. This could include holding rigid poses or remaining motionless. Choice A, 'Crying,' is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Choice B, 'Self-mutilation,' refers to a different behavior seen in some mental health conditions but is not a characteristic feature of catatonic schizophrenia. Choice D, 'Repetitive activities,' does not align with the typical presentation of catatonic schizophrenia, which is characterized by motor abnormalities such as immobility rather than engaging in purposeful repetitive movements.

5. What type of diet is recommended for patients with diverticulitis during an acute flare-up?

• A. High-fiber
• B. Low-residue
• C. Low-fat
• D. High-protein

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During an acute flare-up of diverticulitis, a low-residue diet is recommended. This diet helps reduce bowel movements and minimize irritation to the digestive tract, allowing the inflamed diverticula to heal. High-fiber foods are usually avoided during flare-ups as they can exacerbate symptoms. Low-fat and high-protein diets are not specifically recommended for diverticulitis flare-ups. Therefore, option B is the correct choice.

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