Nursing Elites

1. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Conduct physical training'?

• A. Accountability
• B. Personal/professional development
• C. Individual training
• D. Military appearance/physical condition

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Military appearance/physical condition.' The task 'Conduct physical training' aligns with the category of 'Military appearance/physical condition,' as it involves overseeing physical training activities related to maintaining a certain physical standard. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because 'Accountability' pertains to being answerable for one's actions, 'Personal/professional development' focuses on individual growth and learning, and 'Individual training' is specific to training on a personal level, none of which directly relate to the task of conducting physical training in the context of military appearance and physical condition.

2. What intervention would be the most important for the nurse to implement for the client with a left nephrectomy?

• A. Assess the intravenous fluids for rate and volume
• B. Change the surgical dressing every day at the same time
• C. Monitor the client’s medication levels daily
• D. Monitor the percentage of each meal eaten

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important intervention for a client with a left nephrectomy is to assess the intravenous fluids for rate and volume. After nephrectomy, monitoring intravenous fluids is crucial to ensure proper hydration and kidney function. Changing the surgical dressing daily, monitoring medication levels, and tracking meal intake are also important aspects of care but not as critical as ensuring adequate intravenous fluid management post-surgery.

3. The nurse is caring for a client in a sickle cell crisis. Which is the pain regimen of choice to relieve the pain?

• A. Frequent aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and a non-narcotic analgesic
• B. Motrin (ibuprofen), an NSAID, PRN
• C. Demerol (meperidine), a narcotic analgesic, every four (4) hours
• D. Morphine, a narcotic analgesic, every two (2) to three (3) hours PRN

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Morphine is the preferred analgesic in sickle cell crisis due to its potency and effectiveness in managing severe pain.

4. A client is ordered lisinopril (Zestril) for the treatment of hypertension. He asks the nurse about possible adverse effects. The nurse should inform him about which common adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?

• A. Constipation
• B. Dizziness
• C. Headache
• D. B, C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B, C.' Dizziness and headache are common side effects of ACE inhibitors due to their blood pressure-lowering effects. Constipation is not a common adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors, so choice A is incorrect. Choice B (Dizziness) and choice C (Headache) are more commonly seen and are directly related to the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors, making them the correct choices.

5. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant and interferes with the action of:

• A. Platelets
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Calcium
• D. Vitamin B12

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin K. Warfarin inhibits the action of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting. By interfering with the production of certain clotting factors, warfarin helps prevent blood clots. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin primarily affects the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors and not platelets, calcium, or vitamin B12.

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