ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1
1. The nurse is caring for a client in a sickle cell crisis. Which is the pain regimen of choice to relieve the pain?
- A. Frequent aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and a non-narcotic analgesic
- B. Motrin (ibuprofen), an NSAID, PRN
- C. Demerol (meperidine), a narcotic analgesic, every four (4) hours
- D. Morphine, a narcotic analgesic, every two (2) to three (3) hours PRN
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a sickle cell crisis, morphine is the preferred analgesic due to its potency and effectiveness in managing severe pain. Choice A is incorrect because aspirin is contraindicated in sickle cell disease due to its potential to cause a further decrease in blood flow. Choice B, Motrin (ibuprofen), is also not the ideal choice as NSAIDs can exacerbate renal complications in sickle cell patients. Choice C, Demerol (meperidine), is not recommended for sickle cell pain management due to its toxic metabolite accumulation which can cause seizures and other complications.
2. Six hours after major abdominal surgery, a male client complains of severe abdominal pain; is pale and perspiring; has a thready, rapid pulse; and states he feels faint. The nurse checks the client’s medication administration record and determines that the client receives another injection of pain medication in an hour. What is the appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Explain to the client that it is too early to have an injection for pain
- B. Call the practitioner, report the client’s symptoms, and obtain further orders
- C. Reposition the client for greater comfort and turn on the television as a distraction
- D. Prepare the injection and administer it to the client early because of the severe pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is option B: Call the practitioner, report the client’s symptoms, and obtain further orders. The client is displaying symptoms that indicate potential complications, such as internal bleeding, which require immediate medical evaluation. Option A is incorrect because the client's condition suggests a more urgent need for assessment. Option C is inappropriate as it does not address the seriousness of the client's symptoms. Option D is dangerous and could exacerbate any underlying issue the client may be experiencing.
3. The nurse instructs a client 5 days after a lumbar laminectomy with spinal fusion about how to move from a supine position to standing at the left side of the bed with a walker. Which of the following directions by the nurse is BEST?
- A. Raise the head of the bed so you are sitting straight up, bend your knees, and swing your legs to the side and then to the floor
- B. Rock your body from side to side, going further each time until you build up enough momentum to be lying on your right side, and then raise your trunk toward your toes
- C. Reach over to the left side rail with your right hand, pull your body onto its side, bend your upper leg so the foot is on the bed, and push down to elevate your trunk
- D. Focus on using your arms, the left elbow as a pivot with the left hand grasping the mattress edge and the right hand pushing on the mattress above the elbow, then slide your legs over the side of the mattress
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct method described in option C helps maintain spinal alignment while moving from a lying to a standing position, which is crucial after a lumbar laminectomy with spinal fusion. This technique minimizes strain on the back and promotes safe movement. Choices A, B, and D involve movements that could potentially strain the back, increase the risk of injury, or compromise the spinal alignment, making them less optimal for the client recovering from such surgery.
4. A 31-year-old client is seeking contraceptive information. Before responding to the client’s questions about contraceptives, the nurse obtains a health history. What factor in the client’s history indicates to the nurse that oral contraceptives are contraindicated?
- A. More than 30 years of age
- B. Had two multiple pregnancies
- C. Smokes 1 pack of cigarettes a day
- D. Has a history of borderline hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Smoking, especially in clients over 30, increases the risk of thromboembolic events, making oral contraceptives contraindicated. Choice A (More than 30 years of age) is not a direct contraindication for oral contraceptives. Choice B (Had two multiple pregnancies) is not a factor that contraindicates the use of oral contraceptives. Choice D (Has a history of borderline hypertension) is not a specific contraindication for oral contraceptives unless it is severe or uncontrolled hypertension.
5. Which of the following is a common side effect of the drug metformin?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Weight gain
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, weight loss. Metformin is commonly associated with weight loss rather than weight gain. Metformin works by decreasing glucose production in the liver and improving insulin sensitivity, which can lead to weight loss in some individuals. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Weight gain is not a typical side effect of metformin. Drowsiness and hypertension are also not commonly associated with metformin use.
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