Nursing Elites

1. Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?

• A. The client will void a minimum of 30 mL per hour
• B. The client will have elastic skin turgor
• C. The client will have no adventitious breath sounds
• D. The client will have a serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a key outcome in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A client with fluid volume excess may not necessarily void a minimum of 30 mL per hour, have elastic skin turgor, or have a specific serum creatinine level. The absence of adventitious breath sounds is a more direct indicator of managing fluid volume excess.

2. The client is four hours post-operative abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. Which nursing intervention should be implemented for this client?

• A. Assist the client in ambulating
• B. Assess the client's bilateral pedal pulses
• C. Maintain a continuous IV heparin drip
• D. Provide clear liquids to the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the client's bilateral pedal pulses is essential in this situation as it helps in evaluating the peripheral perfusion and circulation in the lower extremities. This assessment is crucial to detect any signs of decreased blood flow or complications, such as arterial occlusion or thrombosis. Ambulating the client may be important in the postoperative period, but assessing pedal pulses takes priority to ensure adequate perfusion. Maintaining continuous IV heparin drip is not typically indicated immediately post-operatively for an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, as the risk of bleeding complications may outweigh the benefits. Providing a clear liquid diet is not a priority nursing intervention at this stage, as the focus should be on vascular assessment and postoperative monitoring.

3. The nurse is analyzing laboratory values for the assigned clients. Which finding, based on the client's medical history, indicates the need for immediate follow-up?

• A. Client with chronic kidney disease and serum creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL
• B. Client with diabetes mellitus and a glycosylated hemoglobin A (HbA1c) of 7.0%
• C. Client with heart failure and a B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) of 140 pg/mL
• D. Client who is male and has anemia with hemoglobin of 16.5 g/dL and hematocrit of 45%

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An HbA1c of 7.0% in a client with diabetes mellitus indicates poor long-term glucose control, necessitating immediate follow-up. Elevated HbA1c levels suggest a higher average blood sugar over the past 2-3 months, increasing the risk of complications associated with diabetes. Choices A, C, and D do not require immediate follow-up based solely on the provided information. A serum creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL in a client with chronic kidney disease, a BNP of 140 pg/mL in a client with heart failure, and hemoglobin of 16.5 g/dL and hematocrit of 45% in a male client with anemia are within acceptable ranges or do not indicate an urgent need for intervention.

4. Which instructions should the nurse discuss with the client diagnosed with Raynaud’s phenomenon?

• A. Explain that exacerbations will not occur in the summer
• B. Use nicotine gum to help quit smoking
• C. Wear extra warm clothing during cold exposure
• D. Avoid prolonged exposure to direct sunlight

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client diagnosed with Raynaud’s phenomenon is to wear extra warm clothing during cold exposure. This is essential in preventing vasospasms triggered by cold temperatures, which can worsen symptoms of Raynaud's phenomenon. Choice A is incorrect because exacerbations can occur in any season. Choice B is irrelevant and not directly related to managing Raynaud's phenomenon. Choice D is also incorrect as sunlight exposure does not significantly impact Raynaud's phenomenon.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who goes into ventricular tachycardia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Call a code immediately
• B. Assess the client for a pulse
• C. Begin chest compressions
• D. Continue to monitor the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client for a pulse. In ventricular tachycardia, the priority is to determine if the client has a pulse. If there is no pulse, immediate initiation of CPR with chest compressions is required. Calling a code or continuing to monitor the client can delay life-saving interventions. Therefore, assessing for a pulse is the most crucial step in managing ventricular tachycardia.

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