Nursing Elites

1. The client is diagnosed with hereditary spherocytosis. Which treatment/procedure would the nurse prepare the client to receive?

• A. Bone marrow transplant
• B. Splenectomy
• C. Frequent blood transfusions
• D. Liver biopsy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Splenectomy. Splenectomy is the treatment of choice for hereditary spherocytosis. By removing the spleen, the excessive destruction of red blood cells is reduced, preventing hemolysis and improving anemia. Bone marrow transplant (A) is not a standard treatment for hereditary spherocytosis. Frequent blood transfusions (C) may temporarily address anemia but do not treat the underlying cause. Liver biopsy (D) is not indicated as a primary treatment for hereditary spherocytosis.

2. The nurse on the postsurgical unit received a client who was transferred from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) and is planning care for this client. The nurse understands that staff should begin planning for this client’s discharge at which point during the hospitalization?

• A. Is admitted to the surgical unit
• B. Is transferred from the PACU to the postsurgical unit
• C. Is able to perform activities of daily living independently
• D. Has been assessed by the healthcare provider for the first time after surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning should begin as soon as the patient is admitted to the surgical unit to ensure a smooth transition. It is important to start early to address any potential barriers to discharge, coordinate resources, and provide adequate education and support. Choices B, C, and D are not the appropriate points to start discharge planning as they do not mark the beginning of the hospitalization phase related to the surgical unit.

3. A patient taking anticoagulants should be cautious about consuming which type of food?

• A. High-protein foods
• B. High-fiber foods
• C. High-vitamin K foods
• D. High-calcium foods

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: High-vitamin K foods. Foods high in vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of anticoagulants. Vitamin K plays a crucial role in blood clotting, so consuming high amounts of it can counteract the anticoagulant effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly interfere with the action of anticoagulants.

4. A family came to the emergency department with complaints of food poisoning. Which client should the nurse see first?

• A. 32-year-old with diarrhea for 6 hours
• B. 2-year-old with 1 wet diaper in 24 hours
• C. 40-year-old with abdominal cramping
• D. 10-year-old who is nauseated

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of food poisoning, a 2-year-old with reduced urine output is a critical finding indicating dehydration, requiring immediate attention to prevent complications. The reduced urine output is a sign of decreased fluid intake or increased fluid loss, putting the child at high risk for dehydration. This client should be seen first to assess hydration status, initiate necessary interventions, and prevent further complications. While the other symptoms presented by the other clients are concerning, the 2-year-old's decreased urine output poses the most immediate threat to their well-being.

5. A patient with chronic renal failure should avoid which of the following?

• A. Potassium
• B. Calcium
• C. Iron
• D. Zinc

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with chronic renal failure should avoid potassium due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys may not effectively filter excess potassium from the blood, leading to hyperkalemia. Calcium, iron, and zinc do not need to be avoided specifically in chronic renal failure unless there are other underlying reasons or complications.

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