ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2
1. The nurse has given post-procedure instructions to a client who underwent a colonoscopy. Evaluation of learning would be evident if the client makes which statement(s)?
- A. All of the above
- B. “My abdominal muscles may be tender because of the procedure.”
- C. “My diet should be light at first, and then I can progress to a regular diet.”
- D. “It is normal to feel gassy or bloated for a short while after the procedure.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "All of the above." Evaluation of learning after a colonoscopy would be evident if the client mentions all the statements provided. Mild tenderness in the abdominal muscles, starting with a light diet and progressing to a regular diet, and experiencing gas or bloating temporarily are all expected after a colonoscopy. Therefore, all the statements are correct in demonstrating the client's understanding of the post-procedure instructions. Choices B, C, and D provide accurate information about the expected outcomes following a colonoscopy, making them incorrect answers individually but correct when combined as option A.
2. The nurse is caring for a client in a sickle cell crisis. Which is the pain regimen of choice to relieve the pain?
- A. Frequent aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and a non-narcotic analgesic
- B. Motrin (ibuprofen), an NSAID, PRN
- C. Demerol (meperidine), a narcotic analgesic, every four (4) hours
- D. Morphine, a narcotic analgesic, every two (2) to three (3) hours PRN
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a sickle cell crisis, morphine is the preferred analgesic due to its potency and effectiveness in managing severe pain. Choice A is incorrect because aspirin is contraindicated in sickle cell disease due to its potential to cause a further decrease in blood flow. Choice B, Motrin (ibuprofen), is also not the ideal choice as NSAIDs can exacerbate renal complications in sickle cell patients. Choice C, Demerol (meperidine), is not recommended for sickle cell pain management due to its toxic metabolite accumulation which can cause seizures and other complications.
3. The client is complaining of painful swallowing secondary to mouth ulcers. Which statement by the client indicates appropriate management?
- A. “I will brush my teeth with a soft-bristle toothbrush.”
- B. “I will rinse my mouth with Listerine mouthwash.”
- C. “I will swish my antifungal solution and then swallow.”
- D. “I will avoid spicy foods, tobacco, and alcohol.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Avoiding irritants like spicy foods, tobacco, and alcohol is crucial in managing mouth ulcers as they can further irritate and worsen the condition. Choice A is incorrect as using a soft-bristle toothbrush may still cause discomfort. Choice B is incorrect as alcohol-containing mouthwashes can be irritating. Choice C is incorrect as swallowing antifungal solution meant for topical use is not appropriate and can be harmful.
4. The nurse writes a problem of “potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation” for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Instruct the client to delay intercourse until menses
- B. Schedule the client for frequent pelvic sonograms
- C. Explain that the infusion therapy will take 21 days
- D. Discuss that this may cause an ectopic pregnancy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (Choice A) is not directly related to monitoring for ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (Choice C) is not relevant to monitoring for this specific complication. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (Choice D) is important, but it is not the most appropriate intervention for monitoring ovarian hyperstimulation.
5. The client is diagnosed with hereditary spherocytosis. Which treatment/procedure would the nurse prepare the client to receive?
- A. Bone marrow transplant
- B. Splenectomy
- C. Frequent blood transfusions
- D. Liver biopsy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Splenectomy. Splenectomy is the treatment of choice for hereditary spherocytosis. By removing the spleen, the excessive destruction of red blood cells is reduced, preventing hemolysis and improving anemia. Bone marrow transplant (A) is not a standard treatment for hereditary spherocytosis. Frequent blood transfusions (C) may temporarily address anemia but do not treat the underlying cause. Liver biopsy (D) is not indicated as a primary treatment for hereditary spherocytosis.
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