ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2
1. The nurse has given post-procedure instructions to a client who underwent a colonoscopy. Evaluation of learning would be evident if the client makes which statement(s)?
- A. All of the above
- B. “My abdominal muscles may be tender because of the procedure.”
- C. “My diet should be light at first, and then I can progress to a regular diet.”
- D. “It is normal to feel gassy or bloated for a short while after the procedure.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "All of the above." Evaluation of learning after a colonoscopy would be evident if the client mentions all the statements provided. Mild tenderness in the abdominal muscles, starting with a light diet and progressing to a regular diet, and experiencing gas or bloating temporarily are all expected after a colonoscopy. Therefore, all the statements are correct in demonstrating the client's understanding of the post-procedure instructions. Choices B, C, and D provide accurate information about the expected outcomes following a colonoscopy, making them incorrect answers individually but correct when combined as option A.
2. Which risk factor would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with pancreatic cancer?
- A. Chewing tobacco
- B. Low-fat diet
- C. Chronic alcoholism
- D. Exposure to industrial chemicals
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chronic alcoholism. Chronic alcoholism is a significant risk factor for pancreatic cancer as alcohol has a damaging effect on the pancreas. Chewing tobacco (choice A) is associated with oral and throat cancers, not specifically pancreatic cancer. A low-fat diet (choice B) is generally considered a healthier choice and not a direct risk factor for pancreatic cancer. Exposure to industrial chemicals (choice D) may be linked to other types of cancers but is not a major risk factor for pancreatic cancer.
3. A client is ordered lisinopril (Zestril) for the treatment of hypertension. He asks the nurse about possible adverse effects. The nurse should inform him about which common adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?
- A. Constipation
- B. Dizziness
- C. Headache
- D. B, C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B, C.' Dizziness and headache are common side effects of ACE inhibitors due to their blood pressure-lowering effects. Constipation is not a common adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors, so choice A is incorrect. Choice B (Dizziness) and choice C (Headache) are more commonly seen and are directly related to the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors, making them the correct choices.
4. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant and interferes with the action of:
- A. Platelets
- B. Vitamin K
- C. Calcium
- D. Vitamin B12
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting the action of vitamin K, which is crucial for the synthesis of clotting factors in the blood. By interfering with vitamin K, warfarin decreases the production of these clotting factors, thereby prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. This is why individuals on warfarin therapy need to monitor their vitamin K intake. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin does not directly interfere with platelets, calcium, or vitamin B12.
5. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?
- A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
- B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
- C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after a coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization.
- D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of a fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A consultation with a Rapid Response Team (RRT) is most appropriate for the 45-year-old client described in Choice A. This client is 2 years post kidney transplant, presenting with no urine output for 6 hours, a temperature of 101.4°F, heart rate of 98 beats per minute, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 88/72 mm Hg, along with restlessness. These clinical signs are indicative of possible acute renal failure and sepsis, requiring immediate intervention by the rapid response team. Choices B, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency and severity of symptoms as the client in Choice A, making them less appropriate for consultation with the RRT.
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