Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease should avoid which medication?

• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Antacids
• C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
• D. Antihistamines

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease should avoid nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) because they can worsen peptic ulcers. NSAIDs inhibit the production of prostaglandins, which help protect the stomach lining. Acetaminophen (Choice A) is a safer alternative for pain relief in patients with peptic ulcers. Antacids (Choice B) can actually help in symptom relief by neutralizing stomach acid. Antihistamines (Choice D) are not known to worsen peptic ulcers and are generally safe for use in patients with this condition.

2. The HCP orders cultures of the urethral urine, bladder urine, and prostatic fluid. Which instructions would the nurse teach to achieve the first two (2) specimens?

• A. Collect the first 15 mL in one jar and then the next 50 mL in another
• B. Collect three (3) early morning, clean voided urine specimens
• C. Collect the specimens after the HCP massages the prostate
• D. Collect a routine urine specimen for analysis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to collect the first 15 mL in one jar and then the next 50 mL in another. This method allows for accurate cultures of urethral and bladder urine. Choice B is incorrect because it does not specify the correct method for collecting urethral and bladder urine separately. Choice C is incorrect because prostatic fluid is a separate specimen that does not require prostatic massage for collection. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests collecting a routine urine specimen, which does not fulfill the HCP's orders for specific cultures.

3. The nurse is teaching a community class to people with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which explanation would explain the development of Type 2 diabetes?

• A. The islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin
• B. The client eats too many foods that are high in sugar
• C. The pituitary gland does not produce vasopressin
• D. The cells become resistant to the circulating insulin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In Type 2 diabetes, the primary issue is insulin resistance, where cells do not respond effectively to insulin. Choice A is incorrect because in Type 1 diabetes, the islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin. Choice B is not directly related to the development of Type 2 diabetes but rather to its management. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to a dysfunction in vasopressin production, which is not related to Type 2 diabetes.

4. For a patient with a history of liver disease, which type of diet is most appropriate?

• A. High-protein
• B. High-carbohydrate
• C. Low-protein
• D. Low-fat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low-fat diet is the most appropriate for a patient with a history of liver disease. This diet helps reduce liver stress and manage symptoms associated with liver disease. High-protein and high-carbohydrate diets can strain the liver and worsen the condition. A low-protein diet may be necessary in cases of liver disease with hepatic encephalopathy, but in general, a low-fat diet is recommended to support liver function and overall health.

5. Students in the resident M6 Practical Nurse Course are expected to achieve entry-level competencies for which of the following?

• A. Medical-surgical nursing
• B. Obstetric and newborn nursing
• C. Pediatric nursing
• D. Trauma nursing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medical-surgical nursing. In the resident M6 Practical Nurse Course, students are expected to achieve entry-level competencies in medical-surgical nursing. This area of nursing focuses on caring for adult patients with a variety of medical conditions. Obstetric and newborn nursing (choice B), pediatric nursing (choice C), and trauma nursing (choice D) are specialized areas within nursing that are not typically covered in entry-level practical nurse courses, making them incorrect choices.

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