Nursing Elites

1. Where do most peptic ulcers occur?

• A. Esophagus
• B. Stomach
• C. Duodenum
• D. Jejunum

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Most peptic ulcers occur in the duodenum, particularly in cases of duodenal ulcers. Peptic ulcers are most commonly found in the duodenum or the first part of the small intestine. While ulcers can also occur in the esophagus and stomach, they are predominantly located in the duodenum. Therefore, options A, B, and D are incorrect.

2. Before administering an MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine to a 15-month-old, which question should the nurse ask the mother of the child?

• A. “Has your child had any sore throats?”
• B. “Has your child been eating properly?”
• C. “Is your child allergic to any antibiotics?”
• D. “Has your child been exposed to any infections?”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct question the nurse should ask the mother before administering an MMR vaccine to a 15-month-old is whether the child is allergic to any antibiotics. This is crucial because vaccines like MMR contain components that the child could be allergic to, such as neomycin. Checking for antibiotic allergies is essential to prevent adverse reactions to the vaccine. The other options are less relevant in this context. Asking about sore throats, eating habits, or exposure to infections does not directly impact the administration of the MMR vaccine.

3. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the urine for bright-red bleeding
• B. Evaluate the calorie count of the 500-mg protein diet
• C. Assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema
• D. Monitor for a high serum albumin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention to include in the plan of care for a client with rule-out nephritic syndrome is to assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema. Dependent edema is common in nephritic syndrome due to protein loss, and monitoring for this helps manage the condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Monitoring the urine for bright-red bleeding may be more relevant for a client with a different condition, such as glomerulonephritis. Evaluating the calorie count of a 500-mg protein diet is not directly related to managing nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level does not directly address the symptom of dependent edema associated with nephritic syndrome.

4. Which of the following is a nonmedical member of a unit who receives additional training in providing care beyond basic first aid procedures?

• A. Area support squad leader
• B. ATLS specialist
• C. Tactical lifesaver
• D. Combat lifesaver

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Combat lifesaver.' A Combat Lifesaver is a nonmedical member of a unit who is trained in advanced first aid procedures, providing care beyond basic first aid. Choice A, 'Area support squad leader,' does not specifically refer to someone trained in providing advanced care. Choice B, 'ATLS specialist,' refers to someone trained in Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS), which is beyond the scope of the question. Choice C, 'Tactical lifesaver,' is not a recognized term for the role described in the question.

5. The system used at the division level and forward comprises six basic modules. Which module is staffed with two surgeons, two nurse anesthetists, a medical/surgical nurse, two operating room specialists, and two practical nurses?

• A. Treatment squad
• B. Area support squad
• C. Medical service squad
• D. Forward surgical team

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Forward Surgical Team (FST). The FST is staffed with two surgeons, two nurse anesthetists, a medical/surgical nurse, two operating room specialists, and two practical nurses. This specialized team is designed to provide immediate surgical care close to the frontline. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the specific composition of personnel described in the question.

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