Nursing Elites

1. During the admission interview, which question should the nurse ask the male client diagnosed with aorto-iliac disease?

• A. “Do you have trouble sitting for long periods of time?”
• B. “How often do you have a bowel movement and urinate?”
• C. “When you lie down do you feel throbbing in your abdomen?”
• D. “Have you experienced any problems having sexual intercourse?”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct question for the nurse to ask the male client diagnosed with aorto-iliac disease during the admission interview is about any problems experienced during sexual intercourse. Aorto-iliac disease can lead to impaired blood flow to the pelvis and lower extremities, affecting sexual function. Therefore, it is essential to assess the client's sexual health in such cases. The other options, such as sitting for long periods of time, bowel movements and urination frequency, and throbbing sensation when lying down, are not directly related to the potential impact of aorto-iliac disease on sexual function. Hence, they are not the most pertinent questions to ask during the admission interview.

2. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of 'listening and responding to soldiers' suggestions and complaints'?

• A. Accountability
• B. Personal/professional development
• C. Individual training
• D. Military appearance/physical condition

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Accountability in personnel management involves being answerable for one's actions and decisions, which includes listening to and addressing the suggestions and complaints of soldiers. This category focuses on the responsibility and answerability aspect of the nurse manager's role. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because personal/professional development is about growth and improvement, individual training pertains to specific skill development, and military appearance/physical condition relates to the physical presentation and fitness levels, none of which directly address the task of listening and responding to soldiers' suggestions and complaints.

3. A patient with chronic renal failure should avoid which of the following?

• A. Potassium
• B. Calcium
• C. Iron
• D. Zinc

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with chronic renal failure should avoid potassium due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys may not effectively filter excess potassium from the blood, leading to hyperkalemia. Calcium, iron, and zinc do not need to be avoided specifically in chronic renal failure unless there are other underlying reasons or complications.

4. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?

• A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
• B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
• C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization
• D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. This client situation presents with concerning clinical signs such as no urine output post kidney transplant, elevated temperature, tachycardia, hypotension, and restlessness, suggestive of acute renal failure and sepsis. These signs necessitate immediate intervention by the rapid response team (RRT) to address the potentially life-threatening conditions. Choice B is incorrect as the client is stable after chest tube removal and primarily anxious about going home. Choice C is incorrect as the client's symptoms are related to postoperative recovery and boredom, not indicating an urgent need for RRT consultation. Choice D is incorrect as the client post hip repair is stable, alert, and interacting normally, without signs of acute deterioration requiring RRT involvement.

5. Which of the following is NOT one of the major duties of the M6 practical nurse?

• A. Performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures
• B. Managing other paraprofessional personnel
• C. Managing ward or unit operations
• D. Implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations is not a major duty of the M6 practical nurse. The M6 practical nurse is primarily responsible for performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures (A), managing other paraprofessional personnel (B), and managing ward or unit operations (C). The duties mentioned in choices A, B, and C align with the roles typically assigned to a practical nurse, making them incorrect answers for this question.

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