Nursing Elites

1. During the admission interview, which question should the nurse ask the male client diagnosed with aorto-iliac disease?

• A. “Do you have trouble sitting for long periods of time?”
• B. “How often do you have a bowel movement and urinate?”
• C. “When you lie down do you feel throbbing in your abdomen?”
• D. “Have you experienced any problems having sexual intercourse?”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct question for the nurse to ask the male client diagnosed with aorto-iliac disease during the admission interview is about any problems experienced during sexual intercourse. Aorto-iliac disease can lead to impaired blood flow to the pelvis and lower extremities, affecting sexual function. Therefore, it is essential to assess the client's sexual health in such cases. The other options, such as sitting for long periods of time, bowel movements and urination frequency, and throbbing sensation when lying down, are not directly related to the potential impact of aorto-iliac disease on sexual function. Hence, they are not the most pertinent questions to ask during the admission interview.

2. Who is the first individual in the combat health support chain to make medically substantiated decisions based on military occupational specialty-specific medical training?

• A. Physician
• B. Physician Assistant
• C. Combat medic
• D. Combat lifesaver

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Physician Assistant is the first individual in the combat health support chain to make medically substantiated decisions based on their military occupational specialty-specific medical training. While physicians are highly trained medical professionals, in the context of combat health support, the Physician Assistant is typically the frontline provider who directly applies their specific military medical training to make decisions. Combat medics and combat lifesavers may provide critical care in the field, but they do not have the same level of training and scope of practice as a Physician Assistant in this context, making them less likely to be the first to make medically substantiated decisions.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly lead to hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels in the body. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is the opposite, indicating high potassium levels. Hypercalcemia (choice B) refers to elevated calcium levels, not typically associated with diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (choice C) is low magnesium levels and can also be a consequence of diuretic use, but potassium imbalance is more common.

4. Protecting the rights and privacy of the patient and their family is part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?

• A. Evaluation
• B. Planning
• C. Implementation
• D. Assessment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Implementation. Implementation is the phase where the nursing care plan is put into action, which includes safeguarding the patient's and their family's rights and privacy. Evaluation (choice A) involves reviewing the effectiveness of the care plan, Planning (choice B) is the phase where the care plan is developed, and Assessment (choice D) is the initial step where data about the patient is collected.

5. A patient with chronic renal failure should avoid which of the following?

• A. Potassium
• B. Calcium
• C. Iron
• D. Zinc

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with chronic renal failure should avoid potassium due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating potassium levels in the body. In renal failure, the kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium effectively, leading to hyperkalemia. Calcium, iron, and zinc are not typically restricted in chronic renal failure unless there are specific individual circumstances, making them incorrect choices.

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