which question should the nurse ask the male client diagnosed with aorto iliac disease during the admission interview
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 3

1. During the admission interview, which question should the nurse ask the male client diagnosed with aorto-iliac disease?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct question for the nurse to ask the male client diagnosed with aorto-iliac disease during the admission interview is about any problems experienced during sexual intercourse. Aorto-iliac disease can lead to impaired blood flow to the pelvis and lower extremities, affecting sexual function. Therefore, it is essential to assess the client's sexual health in such cases. The other options, such as sitting for long periods of time, bowel movements and urination frequency, and throbbing sensation when lying down, are not directly related to the potential impact of aorto-iliac disease on sexual function. Hence, they are not the most pertinent questions to ask during the admission interview.

2. What is the primary goal of care for a client diagnosed with sickle cell anemia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal of care for a client diagnosed with sickle cell anemia is to help them live as normal a life as possible. This involves managing symptoms, preventing crises, and promoting overall well-being. While options A, B, and D are important aspects of care, the ultimate goal is to enhance the client's quality of life and support them in leading a fulfilling and active lifestyle despite their condition.

3. Why may patients with hiatal hernia develop anemia?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gastritis may cause bleeding. In patients with hiatal hernia, gastritis can lead to gastrointestinal bleeding, resulting in anemia due to blood loss. Choice A is incorrect because hiatal hernia does not directly affect iron absorption. Choice C is incorrect as iron stores turning over more quickly is not a typical reason for anemia in hiatal hernia patients. Choice D is incorrect as an aversion to iron-rich foods does not directly cause anemia in this context.

4. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant and interferes with the action of:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting the action of vitamin K, which is crucial for the synthesis of clotting factors in the blood. By interfering with vitamin K, warfarin decreases the production of these clotting factors, thereby prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. This is why individuals on warfarin therapy need to monitor their vitamin K intake. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin does not directly interfere with platelets, calcium, or vitamin B12.

5. The client is diagnosed with hereditary spherocytosis. Which treatment/procedure would the nurse prepare the client to receive?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Splenectomy. Splenectomy is the treatment of choice for hereditary spherocytosis as it helps prevent hemolysis and improve anemia. Removing the spleen reduces the destruction of the abnormal red blood cells. Choice A, Bone marrow transplant, is not a standard treatment for hereditary spherocytosis. Choice C, Frequent blood transfusions, may be used to manage anemia in some cases but is not the primary treatment for hereditary spherocytosis. Choice D, Liver biopsy, is not a treatment for hereditary spherocytosis; it is a procedure used to diagnose liver conditions, not related to this hematologic disorder.

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