which of the following is not a terminal learning objective for phase i of the m6 practical nurse course
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2

1. Which of the following is NOT a terminal learning objective for Phase I of the M6 Practical Nurse Course?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Integrating drug therapy knowledge is not a terminal learning objective for Phase I of the M6 Practical Nurse Course. Choices A, B, and D are all relevant terminal learning objectives for Phase I, focusing on understanding basic-level anatomy, physiology, microbiology, nutrition, performing pharmacological calculations, and identifying basic principles of field nursing, respectively.

2. The nurse prepares to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a newborn with a diagnosis of heart failure and notes that the apical rate is 140 beats per minute. Which nursing action is appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An apical rate of 140 bpm is within the normal range for a newborn. Digoxin is commonly used to treat heart failure by increasing the strength and efficiency of the heart's contractions. Since the heart rate is within the normal range, there is no need to hold the medication or notify the healthcare provider. Rechecking the apical rate in an hour is unnecessary as the heart rate is not alarming. Therefore, the appropriate nursing action is to administer the digoxin.

3. Which of the following is NOT one of the major duties of the M6 practical nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations is not a major duty of the M6 practical nurse. The M6 practical nurse is primarily responsible for performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures (A), managing other paraprofessional personnel (B), and managing ward or unit operations (C). The duties mentioned in choices A, B, and C align with the roles typically assigned to a practical nurse, making them incorrect answers for this question.

4. The nurse is told in report that the client has aortic stenosis. Which anatomical position should the nurse auscultate to assess the murmur?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Second intercostal space, right sternal border. The aortic valve is best auscultated at the second intercostal space, right sternal border, where the murmur of aortic stenosis is heard most clearly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not the recommended anatomical positions for auscultating the murmur of aortic stenosis.

5. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention to include in the plan of care for a client with rule-out nephritic syndrome is to assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema. Dependent edema is common in nephritic syndrome due to protein loss, and monitoring for this helps manage the condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Monitoring the urine for bright-red bleeding may be more relevant for a client with a different condition, such as glomerulonephritis. Evaluating the calorie count of a 500-mg protein diet is not directly related to managing nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level does not directly address the symptom of dependent edema associated with nephritic syndrome.

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