ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5
1. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?
- A. Sitting
- B. Prone
- C. Sidelying
- D. Supine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.
2. The nurse teaches the mother of an infant how to care for her infant following repair of a cleft lip. It is MOST important for the nurse to include which of the following instructions?
- A. Feed the infant with a newborn nipple while holding him in the recumbent position
- B. Clean the suture site with a cotton-tipped swab soaked in Betadine
- C. Place the infant in the prone position after feeding
- D. Feed the infant with a rubber-tipped syringe and burp frequently
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeding the infant with a rubber-tipped syringe reduces the risk of injury to the surgical site and prevents aspiration. Choice A is incorrect because feeding an infant with a cleft lip using a newborn nipple while in the recumbent position can increase the risk of aspiration. Choice B is incorrect as Betadine is not typically used on suture sites due to its cytotoxic effects. Choice C is incorrect because placing the infant in the prone position after feeding can also increase the risk of aspiration.
3. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?
- A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
- B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
- C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after a coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization.
- D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of a fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A consultation with a Rapid Response Team (RRT) is most appropriate for the 45-year-old client described in Choice A. This client is 2 years post kidney transplant, presenting with no urine output for 6 hours, a temperature of 101.4°F, heart rate of 98 beats per minute, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 88/72 mm Hg, along with restlessness. These clinical signs are indicative of possible acute renal failure and sepsis, requiring immediate intervention by the rapid response team. Choices B, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency and severity of symptoms as the client in Choice A, making them less appropriate for consultation with the RRT.
4. Which of the following is a specialized medical treatment and teaching facility that provides general and specialized medical and dental care and treatment?
- A. CONUS
- B. MEDCEN
- C. MEDCOM
- D. MEDDAC
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'MEDCEN.' A MEDCEN (Medical Center) is a specialized medical treatment and teaching facility that offers general and specialized medical and dental care. Choice A, 'CONUS,' refers to the continental United States and is not related to medical facilities. Choice C, 'MEDCOM,' stands for Medical Command, which is an administrative entity responsible for overseeing medical units, not providing direct care. Choice D, 'MEDDAC,' refers to Medical Department Activity, which is a smaller medical unit compared to a MEDCEN and may not provide the same level of specialized care.
5. Which of the following is a nonmedical member of a unit who receives additional training in providing care beyond basic first aid procedures?
- A. Area support squad leader
- B. ATLS specialist
- C. Tactical lifesaver
- D. Combat lifesaver
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Combat lifesaver.' A Combat Lifesaver is a nonmedical member of a unit who is trained in advanced first aid procedures, providing care beyond basic first aid. Choice A, 'Area support squad leader,' does not specifically refer to someone trained in providing advanced care. Choice B, 'ATLS specialist,' refers to someone trained in Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS), which is beyond the scope of the question. Choice C, 'Tactical lifesaver,' is not a recognized term for the role described in the question.
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