ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5
1. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?
- A. Sitting
- B. Prone
- C. Sidelying
- D. Supine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.
2. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?
- A. Buildup of ammonia in the body
- B. Buildup of urea in the body
- C. Fatty infiltration of the liver
- D. Jaundice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by the buildup of ammonia in the body. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism, normally gets converted to urea in the liver for excretion. However, in liver dysfunction, such as cirrhosis, the liver cannot effectively convert ammonia to urea, leading to its accumulation in the body and subsequently causing hepatic encephalopathy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.
3. The nurse has given post-procedure instructions to a client who underwent a colonoscopy. Evaluation of learning would be evident if the client makes which statement(s)?
- A. All below
- B. “My abdominal muscles may be tender because of the procedure.”
- C. “My diet should be light at first, and then I can progress to a regular diet.”
- D. “It is normal to feel gassy or bloated for a short while after the procedure.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Mild tenderness, a light diet initially, and gas or bloating are expected after a colonoscopy.
4. Which of the following is the primary enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties at the various levels of health care?
- A. 68A30
- B. 68WM6
- C. Physician assistant
- D. 6.80E+21
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: '68WM6'. The 68WM6 (Practical Nurse) is the primary enlisted personnel responsible for performing nursing care duties at various levels of health care. This choice is correct as it specifically identifies the enlisted personnel role related to nursing care. Choice A (68A30) is incorrect as it does not pertain to nursing care duties. Choice C (Physician assistant) is incorrect as physician assistants are not typically enlisted personnel. Choice D (6.80E+21) is incorrect as it is a numerical value and not a designation for enlisted personnel.
5. What is the mission of the Army Medical Department?
- A. Ensure that each soldier receives a physical examination each year
- B. Provide health care to areas of the U.S. declared disaster zones by the President
- C. Maintain the health of the Army and conserve its fighting strength
- D. Offer medical, dental, and veterinary education and training
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Maintain the health of the Army and conserve its fighting strength.' This mission statement reflects the primary goal of the Army Medical Department, which is to ensure the overall health and readiness of military personnel. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not fully capture the core purpose of the Army Medical Department. While providing physical examinations, healthcare in disaster areas, and education/training are important aspects, the central mission is to uphold the health and combat readiness of the Army.
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