Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is inappropriate in collecting mid stream clean catch urine specimen for urine analysis?

• A. Collect early in the morning, First voided specimen
• B. Do perineal care before specimen collection
• C. Collect 5 to 10 ml for urine
• D. Discard the first flow of the urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When collecting a mid-stream clean catch urine specimen for urine analysis, it is important to collect an adequate amount of urine for accurate testing. A volume of 30 to 60 ml is usually recommended for optimal results, so collecting only 5 to 10 ml would not provide enough urine for testing purposes. It is essential to follow proper collection techniques to ensure accurate and reliable test results.

2. Which of the following describes the four-step method of assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation?

• A. It is a problem-focused process of continued nursing care
• B. It is an open-ended process of continued nursing care
• C. It is a circular process of continued nursing care
• D. It is a trial-and-error process of continued nursing care

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'It is a circular process of continued nursing care.' The four-step method of assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation in nursing is a continuous and cyclical process. Choice A is incorrect because the method is not solely problem-focused; it involves a comprehensive approach. Choice B is incorrect as it does not capture the cyclical nature of the process. Choice D is incorrect as the method is systematic and not based on trial-and-error but rather evidence-based practice.

3. What type of food should a patient taking anticoagulants be cautious about consuming?

• A. High-protein foods
• B. High-fiber foods
• C. High-vitamin K foods
• D. High-calcium foods

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients taking anticoagulants should be cautious about consuming high-vitamin K foods. Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of anticoagulants by affecting blood clotting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly interact with the action of anticoagulants.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.

5. The client is admitted to the emergency department complaining of acute epigastric pain and reports vomiting a large amount of bright red blood at home. Which interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Assess the client’s vital signs
• B. Start an IV with an 18-gauge needle
• C. Begin iced saline lavage
• D. A, B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct interventions for a client presenting with acute epigastric pain and vomiting bright red blood are to assess the client’s vital signs and start an IV with an 18-gauge needle. Assessing vital signs helps in determining the client's current condition and response to treatment, while starting an IV is crucial for administering medications and fluids. Beginning iced saline lavage is not appropriate in this situation as the priority is to stabilize the client and address potential bleeding. Therefore, options A and B are correct choices, making option D the most appropriate answer.

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