Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is monitoring a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of appendicitis. The client is scheduled for surgery for 2 hours. The client begins to complain of increases abdominal pain and begins to vomit. On assessment the nurse notes that the abdomen distended and bowel sounds are diminished. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Administer the prescribed pain medication.
• B. Notify the physician.
• C. Call and ask the operating room team to perform the surgery as soon as possible.
• D. Reposition the client and apply a heating pad on warm setting to the client’s abdomen.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Based on the signs and symptoms presented in the question, the nurse should suspect peritonitis and should notify the physician. Administering pain medication is not an appropriate intervention. Heat should never be applied to the abdomen of a client with suspected appendicitis. Scheduling surgical time is not within the scope of nursing practice, although the physician probably would perform the surgery earlier than the prescheduled time.

2. Kevin has a history of peptic ulcer disease and vomits coffee-ground emesis. What does this indicate?

• A. He has fresh, active upper GI bleeding.
• B. He needs immediate saline gastric lavage.
• C. His gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier.
• D. He needs a transfusion of packed RBCs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Coffee-ground emesis is a sign of upper gastrointestinal bleeding that occurred approximately 2 hours earlier. It results from the breakdown of blood in the stomach due to digestive enzymes, giving it a coffee-ground appearance. Choice A is incorrect because coffee-ground emesis indicates older, partially digested blood, not fresh active bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as gastric lavage is not indicated for coffee-ground emesis. Choice D is incorrect because a transfusion of packed RBCs is not the immediate management for this presentation.

3. A client is to take one daily dose of ranitidine (Zantac) at home to treat her peptic ulcer. The nurse knows that the client understands proper drug administration of ranitidine when she says that she will take the drug at which of the following times?

• A. Before meals
• B. With meals
• C. At bedtime
• D. When pain occurs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ranitidine (Zantac) is best taken at bedtime to reduce stomach acid production overnight.

4. When preparing the client with hepatitis A for extended convalescence, the nurse teaches the client about problems that may occur. The nurse knows that the client has understood the teaching when he says that he is most likely to have difficulty:

• A. Controlling abdominal pain.
• B. Maintaining a regular bowel elimination pattern.
• C. Preventing respiratory complications.
• D. Maintaining a positive, optimistic outlook.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Convalescence after hepatitis A may take weeks or even months. Boredom and depression are common problems that the client should anticipate. Abdominal pain is not usually a symptom of hepatitis A. Maintaining a regular bowel elimination pattern is not usually a problem with hepatitis. Problems preventing respiratory complications are unlikely. To support healing, activity is strictly limited but bed rest is not prescribed.

5. Which of the following laboratory results would be expected in a client with peritonitis?

• A. Partial thromboplastin time above 100 seconds
• B. Hemoglobin level below 10 mg/dL
• C. Potassium level above 5.5 mEq/L
• D. White blood cell count above 15,000

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A white blood cell count above 15,000 is indicative of an infection, such as peritonitis.

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