Nursing Elites

1. You’re caring for Beth who underwent a Billroth II procedure (surgical removal of the pylorus and duodenum) for treatment of a peptic ulcer. Which findings suggest that the patient is developing dumping syndrome, a complication associated with this procedure?

• A. Flushed, dry skin.
• B. Headache and bradycardia.
• C. Dizziness and sweating.
• D. Dyspnea and chest pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dizziness and sweating are common signs of dumping syndrome, a complication of the Billroth II procedure.

2. A client with viral hepatitis has no appetite, and food makes the client nauseated. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate?

• A. Explain that high-fat diets usually are tolerated better.
• B. Encourage intake of foods high in protein.
• C. Explain that the majority of calories need to be consumed in the evening hours.
• D. Monitor for fluid and electrolyte imbalance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: If nausea occurs and persists, the client will need to be assessed for fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Explaining to the client that the majority of calories should be eaten in the morning hours is important because nausea occurs most often in the afternoon and evening. Clients should select a diet high in calories because energy is required for healing. Protein increases the workload on the liver. Changes in bilirubin interfere with fat absorption, so low-fat diets are tolerated better.

3. Kevin has a history of peptic ulcer disease and vomits coffee-ground emesis. What does this indicate?

• A. He has fresh, active upper GI bleeding.
• B. He needs immediate saline gastric lavage.
• C. His gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier.
• D. He needs a transfusion of packed RBCs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Coffee-ground emesis is a sign of upper gastrointestinal bleeding that occurred approximately 2 hours earlier. It results from the breakdown of blood in the stomach due to digestive enzymes, giving it a coffee-ground appearance. Choice A is incorrect because coffee-ground emesis indicates older, partially digested blood, not fresh active bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as gastric lavage is not indicated for coffee-ground emesis. Choice D is incorrect because a transfusion of packed RBCs is not the immediate management for this presentation.

4. The client being seen in a physician’s office has just been scheduled for a barium swallow the next day. The nurse writes down which of the following instructions for the client to follow before the test?

• A. Fast for 8 hours before the test
• B. Eat a regular supper and breakfast
• C. Continue to take all oral medications as scheduled.
• D. Monitor own bowel movement pattern for constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fasting for 8 hours ensures that the stomach is empty, which is necessary for an accurate barium swallow test.

5. You’re patient is complaining of abdominal pain during assessment. What is your priority?

• A. Auscultate to determine changes in bowel sounds.
• B. Observe the contour of the abdomen.
• C. Palpate the abdomen for a mass.
• D. Percuss the abdomen to determine if fluid is present.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient is complaining of abdominal pain, the priority is to auscultate to determine changes in bowel sounds.

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