Nursing Elites

1. A client has been diagnosed with adenocarcinoma of the stomach and is scheduled to undergo a subtotal gastrectomy (Billroth II procedure). During pre-operative teaching, the nurse is reinforcing information about the procedure. Which of the following explanations is most accurate?

• A. The procedure will result in enlargement of the pyloric sphincter
• B. The procedure will result in anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum
• C. The procedure will result in removal of the duodenum
• D. The procedure will result in repositioning of the vagus nerve

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Billroth II procedure involves anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who has had a gastroscopy. Which of the following symptoms may indicate that the client is developing a complication related to the procedure? Select all that apply.

• A. The client complains of a sore throat
• B. The client has a temperature of 100*F
• C. The client appears drowsy following the procedure
• D. The client complains of epigastric pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A temperature of 100°F, epigastric pain, and hematemesis are signs that may indicate a complication related to the gastroscopy procedure.

3. A client returns from surgery with a sigmoid colostomy. An ostomy appliance is attached. The priority nursing diagnosis for daily observation and care is:

• A. Diarrhea related to alteration in bowel elimination.
• B. Impaired skin integrity related to seepage.
• C. Impaired nutrition: More than body requirements related to high-fat diet.
• D. Impaired physical mobility related to surgical procedure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Impaired skin integrity would be the priority nursing diagnosis for daily care of the colostomy because the effluent from the colostomy can be irritating to the skin. Diarrhea isn't a concern at this point. The client will be allowed nothing by mouth until peristalsis returns. The client should get out of bed on the first postoperative day, so mobility shouldn't be a problem.

4. A client is to take one daily dose of ranitidine (Zantac) at home to treat her peptic ulcer. The nurse knows that the client understands proper drug administration of ranitidine when she says that she will take the drug at which of the following times?

• A. Before meals
• B. With meals
• C. At bedtime
• D. When pain occurs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ranitidine (Zantac) is best taken at bedtime to reduce stomach acid production overnight.

5. A client is admitted to the hospital after vomiting bright red blood and is diagnosed with a bleeding duodenal ulcer. The client develops a sudden, sharp pain in the midepigastric area along with a rigid, boardlike abdomen. These clinical manifestations most likely indicate which of the following?

• A. An intestinal obstruction has developed
• B. Additional ulcers have developed
• C. The esophagus has become inflamed
• D. The ulcer has perforated

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A sudden, sharp pain in the midepigastric area along with a rigid, boardlike abdomen indicates that the ulcer has perforated.

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