Nursing Elites

1. A 30-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with complaints of severe abdominal cramping and diarrhea. The nurse evaluates the effectiveness of the patient's intravenous therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests BEST reflects hydration status?

• A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
• B. White blood cell count.
• C. Hematocrit.
• D. Serum glucose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hematocrit is the best indicator of hydration status because it reflects the proportion of red blood cells in the blood. An increased hematocrit indicates dehydration, as the blood becomes more concentrated due to fluid loss. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (Choice A) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation, not hydration status. White blood cell count (Choice B) is an indicator of infection or inflammation. Serum glucose (Choice D) is used to monitor blood sugar levels, not hydration status.

2. Which of the following tasks should be included in the immediate postoperative management of a client who has undergone gastric resection?

• A. Monitoring gastric pH to detect complications
• B. Assessing for bowel sounds
• C. Providing nutritional support
• D. Monitoring for symptoms of hemorrhage

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring for symptoms of hemorrhage is a crucial part of the immediate postoperative management of a client who has undergone gastric resection.

3. A client with a history of gastric ulcer suddenly complains of a sharp-severe pain in the mid epigastric area, which then spreads over the entire abdomen. The client’s abdomen is rigid and board-like to palpation, and the client obtains most comfort from lying in the knee-chest position. The nurse calls the physician immediately suspecting that the client is experiencing which of the following complications of peptic ulcer disease?

• A. Perforation
• B. Obstruction
• C. Hemorrhage
• D. Intractability

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs and symptoms described in the question are consistent with perforation of the ulcer, which then progresses to peritonitis if the perforation is large enough. The client with intestinal obstruction most likely would complain of abdominal pain, distension, and nausea and vomiting. The client with hemorrhage would be vomiting blood or coffee-ground-like material or would be expelling black, tarry, or bloody stools. Intractability is a term that refers to continued symptoms of a disease process, despite ongoing medical treatment.

4. Kevin has a history of peptic ulcer disease and vomits coffee-ground emesis. What does this indicate?

• A. He has fresh, active upper GI bleeding.
• B. He needs immediate saline gastric lavage.
• C. His gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier.
• D. He needs a transfusion of packed RBC’s.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Coffee-ground emesis indicates that the gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier.

5. You have a patient with achalasia (incomplete muscle relaxation of the GI tract, especially sphincter muscles). Which medications do you anticipate to administer?

• A. Isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil)
• B. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
• C. Captopril (Capoten)
• D. Propanolol (Inderal)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil) is a medication used to relax the muscles of the GI tract in patients with achalasia.

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