Nursing Elites

1. Elmer is scheduled for a proctoscopy and has an I.V. The doctor wrote an order for 5mg of I.V. diazepam(Valium). Which order is correct regarding diazepam?

• A. Give diazepam in the I.V. port closest to the vein.
• B. Mix diazepam with 50 ml of dextrose 5% in water and give over 15 minutes.
• C. Give diazepam rapidly I.V. to prevent the bloodstream from diluting the drug mixture.
• D. Question the order because I.V. administration of diazepam is contraindicated.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct method for administering I.V. diazepam is to give it in the I.V. port closest to the vein.

2. Christina is receiving an enteral feeding that requires a concentration of 80ml of supplement mixed with 20 ml of water. How much water do you mix with an 8 oz (240ml) can of feeding?

• A. 60 ml.
• B. 70 ml.
• C. 80 ml.
• D. 90 ml.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For an 8 oz (240 ml) can of feeding, mix 60 ml of water to achieve the required concentration.

3. A Penrose drain is in place on the first postoperative day following a cholecystectomy. Serosanguineous drainage is noted on the dressing covering the drain. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Notify the physician.
• B. Change the dressing.
• C. Circle the amount on the dressing with a pen.
• D. Continue to monitor the drainage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Serosanguineous drainage with a small amount of bile is expected from the Penrose drain for the first 24 hours. Drainage then decreases, and the drain is removed usually within 48 hours. The nurse does not need to notify the physician. A sterile dressing covers the site and should be changed to prevent infection and skin excoriation.

4. A client had an abdominal perineal resection with a colostomy 4 days ago and is ready for discharge. Which of the following would be an appropriate expected outcome at this point?

• A. The client maintains a high-fiber diet.
• B. The client discusses concerns about his sexual functioning.
• C. The client maintains bedrest.
• D. The client limits fluid intake to 1000 ml/day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients often have concerns about their sexuality after a fecal diversion. The nurse should encourage the client to discuss any questions about sexual functioning. The client will not need to maintain a high-fiber diet but will be encouraged to avoid any foods that cause odor and flatulence. The client should be able to ambulate and sit out of bed for several hours at a time at this point. Fluid intake will be encouraged, not restricted.

5. A client with gastric cancer can expect to have surgery for resection. Which of the following should be the nursing management priority for the preoperative client with gastric cancer?

• A. Discharge planning
• B. Correction of nutritional deficits
• C. Prevention of DVT
• D. Instruction regarding radiation treatment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority for preoperative management of a client with gastric cancer is the correction of nutritional deficits.

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