Nursing Elites

1. Which patient should be most carefully assessed for fluid and electrolyte imbalance among those receiving the following drugs?

• A. lithium (Eskalith)
• B. clozapine (Clozaril)
• C. diazepam (Valium)
• D. amitriptyline

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lithium is known to cause polyuria (excessive urination) and polydipsia (excessive thirst), which can lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, patients receiving lithium should be carefully monitored for signs of fluid and electrolyte disturbances to prevent any potential complications.

2. During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, which intervention is most appropriate for a patient?

• A. Encourage the patient to engage in group activities.
• B. Provide a structured and low-stimulus environment.
• C. Allow the patient to set their schedule.
• D. Engage the patient in high-energy physical activities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, individuals may experience heightened energy levels, impulsivity, and decreased need for sleep. Providing a structured and low-stimulus environment is crucial in managing manic episodes. This intervention helps reduce overstimulation and provides a calm and predictable setting, which can be beneficial in helping the patient regain control and stability. Group activities and high-energy physical activities may exacerbate the symptoms of mania by increasing stimulation and excitement. Allowing the patient to set their schedule may not provide the necessary structure needed during a manic episode, hence making it less appropriate.

3. Which is a correct evaluation of the new psychiatric nurse's statement regarding a client's use of defense mechanisms?

• A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
• B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
• C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
• D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms serve the purpose of reducing anxiety during times of stress. While some defense mechanisms may be maladaptive, they can also help individuals cope with challenging situations. It is essential for the nurse to recognize that addressing defense mechanisms should be done sensitively, as they may be crucial for the client's emotional regulation. Encouraging the development of healthy coping skills while acknowledging the role of defense mechanisms in managing stress is a balanced approach in psychiatric care. Choice B is incorrect because completely eliminating defense mechanisms is not always feasible or beneficial. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the relationship between defense mechanisms and ego integrity. Choice D is incorrect as it misrepresents the role of defense mechanisms in ego functions.

4. When explaining one of the main differences between narcolepsy and obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, what should the nurse mention?

• A. Symptoms of the two diagnoses are essentially the same, making it difficult to differentiate between them.
• B. People with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished.
• C. People with obstructive sleep apnea syndrome can experience temporary paralysis during naps.
• D. Naps are contraindicated for clients with narcolepsy due to their association with catatonia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep, while obstructive sleep apnea syndrome involves the obstruction of the upper airway during sleep. One of the main differences is that people with narcolepsy often experience refreshing naps, feeling rested and replenished upon waking, which is not the case for obstructive sleep apnea syndrome. This distinction is important for healthcare providers to understand as it helps differentiate between these two sleep disorders.

5. A psychiatric nurse observes that a client diagnosed with schizophrenia is pacing up and down the corridor. The client is muttering to himself, and his hands are trembling. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Ask the client if he is hearing voices.
• B. Offer the client a PRN medication for anxiety.
• C. Encourage the client to participate in a relaxation exercise.
• D. Remove the client to a quieter environment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The first action the nurse should take is to remove the client to a quieter environment. This intervention aims to reduce stimuli that may be contributing to the client's agitation and help create a calmer and more supportive setting for the client. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation as addressing the environmental factors should come first before exploring symptoms, offering medication, or engaging in relaxation exercises.

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