Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed escitalopram (Lexapro) for depression. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime to prevent daytime drowsiness.
• B. Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication with food to prevent stomach upset.
• D. Discontinue the medication if you start feeling better.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid consuming alcohol while taking escitalopram (Lexapro). Alcohol can potentiate side effects such as drowsiness and dizziness when combined with this medication. Choice A is incorrect because escitalopram is usually taken in the morning due to its potential to cause insomnia if taken at bedtime. Choice C is incorrect because taking the medication with or without food does not significantly affect its absorption or side effects. Choice D is incorrect because it is essential for the client to continue taking the medication even if they start feeling better, as abruptly stopping an antidepressant can lead to withdrawal symptoms and a relapse of depression.

2. Research conducted by Miller and Rahe in 1997 demonstrated a correlation between the effects of life changes and illness, leading to the development of the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire (RLCQ). Which principle most limits the effectiveness of this tool?

• A. Specific illnesses are not identified.
• B. The numerical values associated with specific life events are randomly assigned.
• C. Stress is viewed as only a physiological response.
• D. Personal perception of the event is excluded.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The main limitation of the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire (RLCQ) is that it does not consider an individual's personal perception of a life event. As people may interpret events differently, their subjective perspective plays a crucial role in how they experience stress and its potential impact on their health. Ignoring personal perception limits the effectiveness of the tool as it fails to capture the variations in how people respond to life changes. Choices A, B, and C are not the main limitations of the RLCQ. Specific illnesses not being identified or numerical values being randomly assigned do not directly impact the personal perception of life events. Additionally, viewing stress as only a physiological response is not the primary limitation, as stress encompasses psychological and emotional components as well.

3. A client experiencing a manic episode is talking rapidly and jumping from one topic to another. Which term describes this symptom?

• A. Circumstantiality
• B. Flight of ideas
• C. Tangentiality
• D. Perseveration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a manic episode, 'Flight of ideas' is characterized by rapid speech, where the individual moves quickly between topics without a clear connection. This symptom reflects the racing thoughts and impulsivity often seen in manic episodes. Circumstantiality refers to unnecessary detail and delay in getting to the point, tangentiality involves going off on a tangent or unrelated topics, and perseveration is the persistent repetition of a response or behavior. Therefore, 'Flight of ideas' best describes the symptom of rapidly changing topics during a manic episode.

4. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?

• A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
• B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
• C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
• D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.

5. A patient presents in the Emergency Department immediately following a shooting incident in a school where she has been teaching. There is no evidence of physical injury, but she appears very hyperactive and talkative. Which of these symptoms manifested by the patient is an uncommon initial biological response to stress?

• A. Constricted pupils
• B. Watery eyes
• C. Palpitations
• D. Increased heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased lacrimal secretions, palpitations, and increased heart rate are common initial biological responses to stress. Constricted pupils are not typical in the initial response to stress and are more associated with the opposite response, the Rest and Digest system. Watery eyes, palpitations, and increased heart rate are indicative of the body's fight or flight response to stress. Unusual food cravings are not a typical biological response to stress.

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