Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the provider expect the client to exhibit?

• A. A lack of remorse for wrongdoing
• B. A fear of gaining weight
• C. A need for constant reassurance
• D. A willingness to take responsibility for actions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with antisocial personality disorder typically exhibit a lack of remorse for their actions. They may disregard the rights of others, engage in deceitful and manipulative behaviors, and show a consistent pattern of irresponsibility and disregard for social norms. This behavior is a key characteristic of this disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical behaviors associated with antisocial personality disorder. Fear of gaining weight is more indicative of an eating disorder rather than antisocial personality disorder. Needing constant reassurance is not a common trait of individuals with antisocial personality disorder. Additionally, individuals with this disorder often avoid taking responsibility for their actions.

2. In a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client reports a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
• B. The client reports a decrease in the intensity of obsessive thoughts.
• C. The client reports an improvement in overall mood.
• D. The client reports an improvement in sleep patterns.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In clients with OCD undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors is a key indicator of treatment effectiveness. This reduction signifies progress in managing and controlling the compulsions associated with OCD, which is a primary goal of the therapy. Choices B, C, and D may also be positive outcomes of therapy, but the most critical aspect in treating OCD with cognitive-behavioral therapy is targeting and reducing the frequency of compulsive behaviors.

3. Which should the individual recognize as an example of the defense mechanism of repression?

• A. A student aware of the need to study for tomorrow's test goes to a movie instead.
• B. A woman whose son was killed in Iraq does not believe the military report.
• C. A man who is unhappily married goes to school to become a marriage counselor.
• D. A woman was raped when she was 12 and no longer remembers the incident.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repression is a defense mechanism where distressing thoughts, feelings, or memories are pushed out of conscious awareness to protect the individual from emotional pain. In this scenario, the woman's inability to recall the traumatic event of being raped at the age of 12 indicates repression in action. Choices A, B, and C do not represent repression. Choice A reflects procrastination, choice B suggests denial, and choice C indicates sublimation as the man is channeling his unhappiness into a constructive pursuit.

4. When discussing the main differences between narcolepsy and obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, what should the nurse highlight?

• A. Symptoms of the two diagnoses are essentially the same, making it challenging to differentiate between them
• B. Naps are contraindicated for clients with narcolepsy due to their association with cataplexy
• C. People with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished
• D. People with obstructive sleep apnea syndrome may experience temporary paralysis during sleep

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Narcolepsy is characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep, while individuals with narcolepsy often feel refreshed after a brief nap. In contrast, obstructive sleep apnea syndrome is marked by pauses in breathing or shallow breathing during sleep, leading to fragmented sleep and excessive daytime sleepiness. Therefore, the correct answer is that individuals with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished, which is a key distinguishing feature from obstructive sleep apnea syndrome.

5. A client has been taking lithium for several years with good symptom control. The client presents in the emergency department with blurred vision, tinnitus, and severe diarrhea. Which lithium level should the nurse correlate with these symptoms?

• A. 3.7
• B. 1.7
• C. 2.6
• D. 1.3

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Symptoms such as blurred vision, tinnitus, and severe diarrhea are indicative of lithium toxicity. A lithium level of 1.7 is within the toxic range. When clients present with these symptoms, it is crucial for the nurse to correlate them with elevated lithium levels to ensure timely intervention and prevent further complications.

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