Nursing Elites

1. What is the function of villi and microvilli in the GI tract?

• A. produce bile
• B. kill bacteria
• C. produce vitamin K
• D. increase the surface area for absorption

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Villi and microvilli in the GI tract serve to increase the surface area of the small intestine, aiding in the absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as villi and microvilli are primarily involved in enhancing absorption, not in producing bile, killing bacteria, or producing vitamin K.

2. What nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate for a patient with heart failure?

• A. risk for infection
• B. fluid volume excess
• C. impaired body temperature
• D. ineffective airway clearance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a patient with heart failure is 'fluid volume excess.' In heart failure, the heart's reduced pumping ability leads to fluid retention, causing an excess of fluid in the body. This can result in symptoms such as edema, shortness of breath, and weight gain. 'Risk for infection,' 'impaired body temperature,' and 'ineffective airway clearance' are not the most appropriate nursing diagnoses for a patient with heart failure as they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology and common issues seen in heart failure patients.

3. Which vitamin's recommended dietary allowance (RDA) is significantly increased during pregnancy?

• A. Folate
• B. Thiamine (B1)
• C. Riboflavin (B2)
• D. Niacin (B3)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Folate. During pregnancy, the recommended dietary allowance (RDA) for folate is significantly increased to support fetal development and prevent neural tube defects and other congenital anomalies. Folate plays a crucial role in DNA synthesis and cell growth, making it essential for the rapidly dividing cells of the developing fetus. Thiamine (B1), Riboflavin (B2), and Niacin (B3) are important vitamins, but their RDAs do not undergo as significant an increase during pregnancy as folate's RDA does.

4. A nurse is caring for a client following a CVA and observes the client experiencing severe dysphagia. The nurse notifies the provider. Which of the following nutritional therapies will likely be prescribed?

• A. NPO until dysphagia subsides
• B. Supplements via nasogastric tube
• C. Initiation of total parenteral nutrition
• D. Soft residue diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of severe dysphagia following a CVA, the client may have difficulty swallowing and require alternative nutritional support. Providing supplements via a nasogastric tube allows for the delivery of essential nutrients directly into the stomach, bypassing the swallowing difficulties. NPO (nothing by mouth) until dysphagia subsides may be too restrictive for the client's nutritional needs. Initiation of total parenteral nutrition is usually reserved for cases where enteral feeding is not possible or contraindicated. A soft residue diet may not be suitable for a client experiencing severe dysphagia.

5. What gastrointestinal side effects are associated with antisecretory drugs such as proton pump inhibitors?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Gastroparesis
• C. Dumping syndrome
• D. Flatulence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are a type of antisecretory drug that can cause nausea and vomiting by altering stomach acid production. These are common side effects associated with PPIs. Gastroparesis (B) is a condition that affects the stomach muscles and prevents proper stomach emptying; it is not a side effect of PPIs. Dumping syndrome (C) is a group of symptoms that can occur after having part of your stomach removed and is not a side effect of PPIs. While some people might experience flatulence (D) when taking PPIs, it is not as commonly associated with these drugs as the effects of nausea and vomiting.

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