Nursing Elites

1. What is considered an acceptable LDL cholesterol level for children and adolescents?

• A. Less than 70 mg/dL
• B. Less than 110 mg/dL
• C. Less than 129 mg/dL
• D. Less than 170 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An LDL cholesterol level of less than 110 mg/dL is considered acceptable and healthy for children and adolescents. This level helps reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because an LDL cholesterol level below 110 mg/dL is the recommended target for children and adolescents to maintain good heart health.

2. Which consumption pattern of fermentable carbohydrate is considered most cariogenic?

• A. A single exposure to a large quantity
• B. A single exposure to a small quantity
• C. Multiple exposures of small quantities
• D. Multiple exposures followed by chewing sugarless gum

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Multiple exposures of small quantities are considered most cariogenic. The total amount of dietary fermentable carbohydrate seems to matter less than the form and frequency in which it is consumed. Having multiple exposures of even small quantities of fermentable carbohydrate throughout the day promotes a highly cariogenic environment in the mouth. Choices A and B, involving single exposures, are less cariogenic as they do not sustain the fermentation process over time. Choice D suggests a beneficial practice by chewing sugarless gum after exposures, which can reduce the risk, making it less cariogenic compared to multiple exposures of small quantities.

3. The component that should receive the highest priority before physical examination is the:

• A. Psychological preparation of the client
• B. Physical Preparation of the client
• C. Preparation of the Environment
• D. Preparation of the Equipments

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

4. What does oliguria lead to in patients with acute kidney injury?

• A. Hypophosphatemia and overgrowth of bone tissue
• B. An increase in blood potassium levels due to excessive excretion of parathyroid hormone
• C. Sodium retention and elevated levels of potassium
• D. Edema due to increased urine production

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In patients with acute kidney injury, oliguria (reduced urine output) often results in sodium retention and hyperkalemia (elevated levels of potassium). This is due to the kidneys' decreased capacity to excrete these substances. Choice A is incorrect because hypophosphatemia and overgrowth of bone tissue are not direct consequences of oliguria in acute kidney injury. Choice B is incorrect because an increase in blood potassium levels is not caused by excessive excretion of parathyroid hormone but rather by decreased excretion of potassium. Choice D is incorrect because edema is not caused by increased urine production but rather by fluid overload due to decreased urine output.

5. Which nutrient is most closely associated with the prevention of neural tube defects in a developing fetus for a woman planning to become pregnant?

• A. Calcium
• B. Folate
• C. Vitamin A
• D. Choline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is folate. Folate, also known as Vitamin B9, is vital for the prevention of neural tube defects in the developing fetus. It is primarily responsible for the creation and repair of DNA, which is essential during rapid growth stages such as pregnancy. While nutrients like calcium, vitamin A, and choline are important for pregnancy, they are not as directly linked to preventing neural tube defects as folate. Calcium is crucial for the baby's bone and teeth development. Vitamin A is essential for vision, immune function, and cellular growth. Choline supports brain development and neural functioning. However, none of these nutrients have the same direct impact on preventing neural tube defects as folate.

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