Nursing Elites

1. What is the initial technique used when examining a client's abdomen?

• A. Palpation
• B. Auscultation
• C. Percussion
• D. Inspection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When examining a client's abdomen, the initial technique used is inspection. Inspection involves visually assessing the abdomen for any abnormalities, such as distention, scars, or rashes. This step allows the healthcare provider to gather valuable information before proceeding to other examination techniques like palpation, auscultation, and percussion. Palpation, auscultation, and percussion are secondary techniques used after visual inspection to further assess the abdomen for specific findings. Palpation involves feeling the abdomen for masses or tenderness, auscultation is listening for bowel sounds, and percussion is tapping the abdomen to assess for areas of dullness or resonance.

2. What is the abbreviation for micro drop?

• A. µgtt
• B. gtt
• C. mdr
• D. mgts

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct abbreviation for micro drop is 'µgtt,' where the symbol 'µ' represents micro and 'gtt' stands for drop. Choice B, 'gtt,' is the abbreviation for drop, not specifically for micro drop. Choice C, 'mdr,' and Choice D, 'mgts,' are not standard abbreviations for micro drop and are incorrect.

3. The healthcare provider orders an IV solution of dextrose 5% in water at 100ml/hour. What would the flow rate be if the drop factor is 15 gtt = 1 ml?

• A. 5 gtt/minute
• B. 13 gtt/minute
• C. 25 gtt/minute
• D. 50 gtt/minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To determine the flow rate in drops per minute, multiply the ordered volume per hour by the drop factor (100 ml/hour x 15 gtt/ml = 1500 gtt/hour). Then, divide the result by 60 minutes to convert it to drops per minute (1500 gtt/hour ÷ 60 minutes = 25 gtt/minute). Therefore, the correct answer is 25 gtt/minute.

4. Which of the following conditions in the client's history is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives?

• A. Hyperthyroidism.
• B. Thrombophlebitis.
• C. Diverticulosis.
• D. Hypocalcemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thrombophlebitis, which is inflammation of a vein with the formation of a clot, is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives due to an increased risk of thromboembolism. Clients with a history of thrombophlebitis or thromboembolic disorders should avoid oral contraceptives to prevent further complications like deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism.

5. A nurse is orienting a newly licensed nurse on the purpose of administering vecuronium to a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. This medication is given to treat infection.
• B. This medication is given to facilitate ventilation.
• C. This medication is given to decrease inflammation.
• D. This medication is given to reduce anxiety.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Vecuronium is a neuromuscular blocking agent that is used to facilitate ventilation by inducing muscle paralysis, which can help improve oxygenation in patients with ARDS. It does not treat infection, decrease inflammation, or reduce anxiety. Understanding the purpose of vecuronium administration is crucial for providing safe and effective care to patients with respiratory distress.

Similar Questions