Nursing Elites

1. The chief mechanism for maintaining fluid balance is to:

• A. adjust fluid intake so it equals fluid output.
• B. adjust fluid intake so it is slightly above fluid output.
• C. adjust fluid output so it equals fluid input.
• D. adjust fluid intake so it is slightly below fluid output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'adjust fluid output so it equals fluid input.' Maintaining fluid balance involves ensuring that the amount of fluid lost through processes like urination, sweating, and respiration equals the amount of fluid taken in. This ensures that the body stays properly hydrated. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not focus on the balance between fluid input and output, which is crucial for maintaining proper fluid balance. By adjusting fluid output to equal fluid input, the body can regulate hydration levels effectively, preventing dehydration or overhydration.

2. After teaching a client who was malnourished and is being discharged, a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement indicates the client correctly understood teaching to decrease risk for the development of metabolic acidosis?

• A. I will drink at least three glasses of milk each day.
• B. . I will eat three well-balanced meals and a snack daily.
• C. . I will not take pain medication and antihistamines together.
• D. I will avoid salting my food when cooking or during meals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

3. You are making initial shift assessments on your patients. While assessing one patients peripheral IV site, you note edema around the insertion site. How should you document this complication related to IV therapy?

• A. Air emboli
• B. Phlebitis
• C. Infiltration
• D. Fluid overload

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

4. A nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which client should the nurse assess first for potential hyponatremia?

• A. A 34-year-old on NPO status who is receiving intravenous D5W
• B. A 50-year-old with an infection who is prescribed a sulfonamide antibiotic
• C. A 67-year-old who is experiencing pain and is prescribed ibuprofen (Motrin)
• D. A 73-year-old with tachycardia who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 34-year-old on NPO status receiving intravenous D5W because D5W is a hypotonic solution that can dilute the blood's sodium levels, leading to hyponatremia. Patients on NPO status rely solely on intravenous fluids for hydration, making them more susceptible to electrolyte imbalances. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to cause hyponatremia. Choice B, the 50-year-old with an infection on a sulfonamide antibiotic, is at risk for allergic reactions or renal issues. Choice C, the 67-year-old taking ibuprofen, is at risk for gastrointestinal bleeding or kidney problems. Choice D, the 73-year-old on digoxin with tachycardia, is more likely to experience digoxin toxicity, affecting the heart's rhythm.

5. The healthcare provider is evaluating a patient's laboratory results. Based on the laboratory findings, what results will cause the release of an antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

• A. Increased serum sodium
• B. Decreased serum sodium
• C. Decrease in serum osmolality
• D. Decrease in thirst

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased serum sodium. When serum sodium levels increase, it triggers the release of ADH by the posterior pituitary gland. ADH helps in retaining water, reducing urine output, and maintaining fluid balance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because decreased serum sodium, decrease in serum osmolality, and decrease in thirst do not stimulate the release of ADH.

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