Nursing Elites

1. Why may patients with hiatal hernia develop anemia?

• A. Iron absorption is reduced
• B. Gastritis may cause bleeding
• C. Iron stores turn over more quickly
• D. Patients have an aversion to foods that are good sources of iron

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gastritis may cause bleeding. In patients with hiatal hernia, gastritis can lead to gastrointestinal bleeding, resulting in anemia due to blood loss. Choice A is incorrect because hiatal hernia does not directly affect iron absorption. Choice C is incorrect as iron stores turning over more quickly is not a typical reason for anemia in hiatal hernia patients. Choice D is incorrect as an aversion to iron-rich foods does not directly cause anemia in this context.

2. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

3. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

• A. Sitting
• B. Prone
• C. Sidelying
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.

4. For a patient with a history of liver disease, which type of diet is most appropriate?

• A. High-protein
• B. High-carbohydrate
• C. Low-protein
• D. Low-fat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low-fat diet is the most appropriate for a patient with a history of liver disease. This diet helps reduce liver stress and manage symptoms associated with liver disease. High-protein and high-carbohydrate diets can strain the liver and worsen the condition. A low-protein diet may be necessary in cases of liver disease with hepatic encephalopathy, but in general, a low-fat diet is recommended to support liver function and overall health.

5. The best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination is

• A. Dorsal recumbent
• B. Side lying
• C. Supine
• D. Lithotomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The lithotomy position is the most suitable position for procedures involving vaginal and cervical examination because it provides the best access to the vaginal and cervical regions. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs flexed and feet placed in stirrups, allowing for optimal visualization and access to the area. This position facilitates proper examination, diagnosis, and treatment when working in the gynecological field. The other options (dorsal recumbent, side lying, and supine) do not provide the same level of access and visualization as the lithotomy position, making them less ideal for vaginal and cervical examinations.

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