ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Practice Test B 2019
1. Most nurses regard this conventional recording of the date, time, and mode by which the patient leaves a healthcare unit but this record includes importantly, directs of planning for discharge that starts soon after the person is admitted to a healthcare institution. It is accepted that collaboration or multidisciplinary involvement (of all members of the health team) in discharge results in comprehensive care. What do you call this?
- A. Discharge Summary
- B. Nursing Kardex
- C. Medicine and Treatment Record
- D. Nursing Health History and Assessment Worksheet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
2. Low levels of physical activity are more commonly associated with which type of cancer?
- A. Esophageal cancer
- B. Pancreatic cancer
- C. Lung cancer
- D. Colon cancer
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Low physical activity is most strongly associated with an increased risk of colon cancer. Regular exercise helps regulate bowel movements and reduce inflammation, which are factors that can contribute to the development of colon cancer. Esophageal cancer, pancreatic cancer, and lung cancer are not as directly linked to low levels of physical activity.
3. What symptoms would most likely be associated with a transient ischemic attack?
- A. confusion and difficulty speaking
- B. headache and blurred vision
- C. chest pain and pressure
- D. claudication and peripheral edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: confusion and difficulty speaking. These symptoms are commonly associated with a transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain. Choice B, headache and blurred vision, are more indicative of other conditions such as migraines or eye problems. Choice C, chest pain and pressure, are more characteristic of cardiac issues like a heart attack. Choice D, claudication and peripheral edema, are typical of peripheral arterial disease and not typically seen in TIAs.
4. The rationales for using a prostaglandin gel for a client prior to the induction of labor is to:
- A. Soften and efface the cervix
- B. Numb cervical pain receptors
- C. Prevent cervical lacerations
- D. Stimulate uterine contractions
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
5. Dental hygienists are in a key position to assess and detect signs and symptoms of systemic disease because more than one third of the patients treated in a dental office frequently do not interact with a general health care provider.
- A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
- B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related
- C. The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct
- D. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Dental hygienists often see patients more regularly than general healthcare providers, allowing them to identify systemic issues early.
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