Nursing Elites

1. Marge is a 2-year-old girl who does not sit and eat at mealtimes but rather brings food to many rooms, eats a few bites, and drops it. Her parents report that she is a 'fussy eater.' Marge is significantly below weight for her age. She does not have any oral motor structure abnormalities, but eats only certain foods with the same texture. Which intervention strategy would be best to address the environmental context?

• A. Prolong mealtimes and eliminate all snacks
• B. Provide high-calorie snacks and meals at the table throughout the day
• C. Allow Marge to eat whenever and wherever she wants in the house
• D. Require Marge to eat everything on her plate and at snack

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of Marge, who exhibits selective eating habits and struggles with weight gain, providing high-calorie snacks and meals at the table throughout the day can be an effective intervention. This strategy can help increase her food intake in a structured environment, promoting healthier eating habits and potentially addressing her below-average weight status. Choice A, prolonging mealtimes and eliminating all snacks, may not be the best approach as it could lead to more food refusal and stress during meals. Choice C, allowing Marge to eat whenever and wherever she wants in the house, may further enable her selective eating behavior and hinder progress. Choice D, requiring Marge to eat everything on her plate and at snack, can create a negative mealtime environment and may not address the underlying causes of her eating habits. Therefore, providing high-calorie snacks and meals at designated times offers a balanced approach to support Marge's nutritional needs and overall well-being.

2. A nasogastric tube for suction is ordered for a neonate diagnosed with a diaphragmatic hernia. Which complication related to gastric drainage is the priority when planning care for this neonate?

• A. Weight loss
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Dehydration
• D. Hyperbilirubinemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metabolic alkalosis is the priority complication to consider when a neonate with a diaphragmatic hernia is placed on gastric suction. Prolonged gastric drainage can lead to the loss of stomach acids, resulting in metabolic alkalosis, which can have serious consequences for the neonate's health.

3. In an immunization clinic, which patient will the nurse identify as not eligible to receive routine immunizations?

• A. An 8-year-old experiencing diarrhea
• B. A 2-year-old with a history of pre-term birth
• C. A 4-year-old with a fever and upper respiratory tract infection
• D. A 6-year-old who has been recently exposed to a classmate with chickenpox

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should identify the 4-year-old with a fever and upper respiratory tract infection as not eligible to receive routine immunizations. It is contraindicated to administer vaccines in the presence of moderate to severe illness, whether with or without fever, to prevent potential complications or reduced vaccine efficacy.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing medication instructions for a child who has undergone a kidney transplant and is prescribed cyclosporine. The parents ask the provider about the reason for the cyclosporine. Which rationale for this medication should the healthcare provider include in the response?

• A. Suppress rejection
• B. Decrease pain
• C. Improve circulation
• D. Boost immunity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cyclosporine is used to suppress the immune system and prevent rejection of the transplanted kidney. It helps to reduce the risk of the body attacking and rejecting the new organ. This medication is crucial in ensuring the success of the kidney transplant by keeping the immune system in check.

5. A patient in the emergency department reports taking sildenafil (Viagra) and nitroglycerin 1 hr before sexual activity. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the physician?

• A. WBC of 3200 cells/mm³
• B. RR of 26 breaths/min
• C. Temp of 38°C
• D. BP of 70/50

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: BP of 70/50. When sildenafil (Viagra) is taken with nitroglycerin, it can cause severe hypotension that is unresponsive to treatment. The combination of these medications can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. It is crucial to immediately report hypotension in this scenario as it poses a significant risk to the patient's life. It is recommended to allow at least 24 hours to elapse between the last dose of sildenafil and nitroglycerin to prevent such adverse effects. The other vital signs and lab values may be abnormal but do not have the immediate life-threatening implications that severe hypotension does in this context.

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