Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing care for a pediatric client in the emergency department (ED) with a diagnosis of decreased level of consciousness (LOC) secondary to increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which healthcare provider order should the nurse question?

• A. Passive range-of-motion exercises to promote hip flexion
• B. Oxygen at 2 L nasal cannula to maintain saturation above 95%
• C. Hourly vital signs and neurologic checks
• D. Elevate head of bed 30 degrees

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a pediatric client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and decreased level of consciousness (LOC), passive range-of-motion exercises to promote hip flexion should be questioned as they can potentially increase intracranial pressure. This action may not be safe for the client's condition. The other options are appropriate interventions for managing a pediatric client with increased ICP and decreased LOC.

2. A caregiver is teaching a parent of a child with a new prescription for ferrous sulfate tablets. Which of the following instructions should the caregiver include in the teaching?

• A. Give the medication with milk.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Avoid giving the medication with orange juice.
• D. Brush the child's teeth after administration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: It is important for the caregiver to instruct the parent to brush the child's teeth after administering ferrous sulfate to prevent staining of the teeth. Iron in ferrous sulfate can cause teeth discoloration, so brushing the child's teeth after taking the medication helps prevent this side effect.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a child who has nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following findings should the professional expect?

• A. Hypoalbuminemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Polyuria
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, there is excessive loss of protein in the urine, leading to hypoalbuminemia. This results in decreased oncotic pressure, causing fluid to shift into the interstitial spaces, leading to edema. Hyperkalemia, polyuria, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with nephrotic syndrome.

4. A healthcare provider at an urgent care clinic is assessing an adolescent client who has an upper respiratory tract infection. Which of the following findings should the provider recognize as a manifestation of pertussis?

• A. Inflamed throat with exudate
• B. Purulent eye drainage
• C. Dry, hacking cough
• D. Koplik spots on buccal mucosa

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Dry, hacking cough.' A dry, hacking cough is a classic manifestation of pertussis. Pertussis typically presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection, starting with a persistent, severe, and uncontrollable cough that can worsen at night. This cough is often followed by a high-pitched 'whoop' sound as the patient tries to catch their breath, hence the term 'whooping cough.' In contrast, options A, B, and D are not typically associated with pertussis. Inflamed throat with exudate may suggest a bacterial throat infection like streptococcal pharyngitis, purulent eye drainage is more indicative of a bacterial conjunctivitis, and Koplik spots on the buccal mucosa are specific to measles. Therefore, recognizing the dry, hacking cough as a manifestation of pertussis is crucial for early identification and appropriate management of the disease.

5. Which medication is most likely to cause serious respiratory depression as a potential adverse reaction?

• A. Morphine
• B. Pentazocine
• C. Hydrocodone
• D. Nalmefene

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Morphine, as a strong opioid agonist, has the highest likelihood of causing serious respiratory depression due to its potent effects on the central nervous system. While Pentazocine and Hydrocodone can also cause respiratory depression, they are less likely to do so compared to morphine. Nalmefene, an opioid antagonist, is used to reverse respiratory depression caused by opioids rather than causing it.

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