Nursing Elites

1. What type of drug is lamivudine, used for the management of HIV infection?

• A. CCR5 antagonist
• B. fusion inhibitor
• C. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
• D. protease inhibitor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lamivudine belongs to the class of nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs), making choice C the correct answer. NRTIs like lamivudine work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, an essential component for the HIV virus to replicate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because lamivudine does not function as a CCR5 antagonist, fusion inhibitor, or protease inhibitor in the management of HIV infection.

2. Which factor has been shown to increase the risk of development of atherosclerosis?

• A. Menopause
• B. Age older than 35
• C. Increased levels of arachidonic acid
• D. Elevated HDL cholesterol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Menopause. Menopause is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis due to hormonal changes that affect lipid profiles and vascular health. Conversely, B: Age older than 35 is not necessarily a risk factor for atherosclerosis on its own, though atherosclerosis risk does generally increase with age. C: Increased levels of arachidonic acid is not specifically linked to atherosclerosis; it's a fatty acid that can be both beneficial and harmful to health depending on its metabolic pathway. D: Elevated HDL cholesterol is actually beneficial rather than harmful because HDL cholesterol is known as 'good' cholesterol that helps to reduce the risk of heart disease and atherosclerosis.

3. What symptoms would most likely be associated with a transient ischemic attack?

• A. confusion and difficulty speaking
• B. headache and blurred vision
• C. chest pain and pressure
• D. claudication and peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: confusion and difficulty speaking. These symptoms are commonly associated with a transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain. Choice B, headache and blurred vision, are more indicative of other conditions such as migraines or eye problems. Choice C, chest pain and pressure, are more characteristic of cardiac issues like a heart attack. Choice D, claudication and peripheral edema, are typical of peripheral arterial disease and not typically seen in TIAs.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive a mechanically altered diet. Which of the following client food choices necessitates intervention by the nurse?

• A. Scrambled eggs
• B. Cottage cheese
• C. Piece of wheat toast
• D. Sliced banana

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Sliced banana.' A mechanically altered diet is designed for clients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing. Sliced bananas, due to their texture and potential choking hazard for clients with swallowing difficulties, would necessitate intervention by the nurse. Scrambled eggs, cottage cheese, and a piece of wheat toast are softer and safer options for clients on a mechanically altered diet, making them appropriate choices.

5. Worldwide, what is the most common nutrient deficiency?

• A. magnesium deficiency
• B. iron deficiency
• C. selenium deficiency
• D. zinc deficiency

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Iron deficiency is the most common nutrient deficiency globally. It leads to anemia and affects many populations, especially women and children. Magnesium, selenium, and zinc deficiencies are important, but they are not as prevalent as iron deficiency on a global scale.

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