Nursing Elites

1. What type of mode best describes Kasey's approach when meeting with the principal to change the cafeteria to better accommodate her client with difficulty eating in a noisy and distracting environment?

• A. Collaborating
• B. Instructing
• C. Advocating
• D. Encouraging

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Advocating best describes Kasey's approach in this scenario. Advocating involves presenting stories, research, and ideas to support and champion for a specific cause or individual, in this case, advocating for changes to better meet the child's needs in the cafeteria. Collaborating involves working together with others towards a common goal, instructing involves providing guidance or directions, and encouraging involves giving support or motivation, none of which fully capture Kasey's proactive and supportive advocacy actions in this context.

2. Which statement best describes the use of activity or task analysis?

• A. A foundational tool in occupational therapy for over a century
• B. A technique used to evaluate motor deficits in pediatrics
• C. Recently applied in some areas of pediatric occupational therapy
• D. A tool used exclusively by occupational therapy practitioners

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'A foundational tool in occupational therapy for over a century.' Activity or task analysis has been a fundamental method in occupational therapy for a long time. It involves breaking down activities or tasks into smaller components to understand the skills required and identify areas of difficulty. This process helps occupational therapists develop effective intervention strategies to improve a client's ability to perform daily activities independently. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because activity or task analysis is not limited to evaluating motor deficits in pediatrics, recently applied only in some areas of pediatric occupational therapy, or exclusively used by occupational therapy practitioners. It is a widely used and established method in the field of occupational therapy.

3. For which patient diagnosis would a prescription for nifedipine be least appropriate?

• A. Angina Pectoris
• B. Essential HTN
• C. Atrial Fibrillation
• D. Vasospastic Angina

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nifedipine primarily acts as a calcium channel blocker, exerting its effects on vascular smooth muscle. It is not effective for treating dysrhythmias like Atrial Fibrillation, which involve abnormalities in the heart's electrical system. Nifedipine is commonly prescribed for conditions such as angina pectoris, essential hypertension, and vasospastic angina due to its vasodilatory and anti-anginal properties. Choices A, B, and D are more appropriate as nifedipine can help in managing angina pectoris, hypertension, and vasospastic angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand and dilating coronary arteries.

4. A parent is receiving discharge teaching following their infant's hypospadias repair. Which instruction should the parent follow?

• A. Apply a warm compress to the infant's surgical site twice daily.
• B. Avoid giving the infant a tub bath for 1 week.
• C. Apply an antibiotic ointment to the infant's penis daily.
• D. Clamp the infant's catheter for 30 minutes every 4 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After hypospadias repair, it is essential to avoid giving the infant a tub bath for 1 week to prevent infection and promote proper healing. Submerging the surgical site in water too soon can increase the risk of infection and compromise the healing process.

5.

• A. Have you noticed any swelling in your feet?
• B. Are you having vivid dreams or hallucination?
• C. Have you noticed any changes in your stool?
• D. Have you had your flu vaccine?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients taking levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet) are at increased risk for the psychiatric side effects of levodopa, including visual hallucinations, vivid dreams, nightmares, and paranoid ideation. The other questions are not directly related to problems that are likely to occur with this drug.

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