Nursing Elites

1. When discussing the correction of hypospadias in a newborn, what does the nurse explain about this condition?

• A. No intervention is required as the defect will correct itself over time.
• B. Surgical repair of hypospadias is typically performed before 18 months of age.
• C. Corrective surgery is commonly postponed until preschool age.
• D. Repairing the defect does not increase the risk of testicular cancer.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the opening of the urethra is on the underside of the penis. Surgical repair is the primary treatment for hypospadias and is usually recommended to be done before 18 months of age. This timing is preferred for optimal cosmetic and functional outcomes. Waiting until preschool age for corrective surgery may increase the complexity of the procedure and potential complications. Correcting hypospadias does not impact the risk of testicular cancer.

2. When planning care for a newborn with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula, which is the priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Ineffective Tissue Perfusion
• B. Ineffective Infant Feeding Pattern
• C. Acute Pain
• D. Risk for Aspiration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a newborn with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula is 'Risk for Aspiration' because of the potential respiratory complications associated with these conditions. The newborn is at a higher risk of aspirating oral or gastric contents due to the abnormal connections between the esophagus and trachea, posing a serious threat to the airway and lungs. Addressing this risk is crucial to prevent respiratory distress and maintain the airway's patency, making it the priority nursing diagnosis in this scenario. 'Ineffective Tissue Perfusion' is not the priority as respiratory compromise takes precedence over perfusion concerns. 'Ineffective Infant Feeding Pattern' may be relevant but addressing the risk of aspiration is more critical. 'Acute Pain' is not the priority compared to the life-threatening risk of aspiration.

3. What is the most appropriate nursing consideration for a patient who is prescribed verapamil and digoxin?

• A. Restrict intake of oral fluids and high-fiber foods
• B. Take an apical pulse for 30 seconds before administration
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of nausea, vomiting, and visual changes
• D. Hold the medications if the heart rate is greater than 110 bpm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed verapamil and digoxin, it is crucial to monitor for signs of digoxin toxicity due to the potential interaction between these medications. Verapamil can elevate digoxin blood serum levels, increasing the risk of toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and visual changes. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing consideration is to notify the healthcare provider of these symptoms. Restricting intake of oral fluids and high-fiber foods is not a specific consideration related to this medication combination. Before administering digoxin, it is essential to take an apical pulse for a full minute, not just 30 seconds, to ensure accuracy. Additionally, holding the medications if the heart rate exceeds 110 bpm is not a typical response to the combination of verapamil and digoxin, which can cause bradycardia rather than tachycardia.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a child with acute lymphocytic leukemia. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare provider to report?

• A. Bruising
• B. Petechiae
• C. Elevated WBC count
• D. Elevated platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority finding to report for a child with acute lymphocytic leukemia is petechiae. Petechiae indicate a low platelet count, which increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the healthcare provider should promptly report petechiae to initiate appropriate interventions to prevent bleeding complications.

5. A 9-month-old infant who is not sitting independently has been diagnosed with ataxic cerebral palsy (CP). Which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to see in the baby?

• A. Hypotonia and muscle instability
• B. Hypertonia and persistence of primitive reflexes
• C. Tremors and exaggerated posturing
• D. Hemiplegia and hypertonia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In ataxic cerebral palsy, the characteristic features include hypotonia (low muscle tone) and muscle instability. These manifestations contribute to the infant's difficulty in achieving independent sitting. Hypertonia (increased muscle tone) and persistence of primitive reflexes, as mentioned in option B, are more commonly associated with other types of cerebral palsy like spastic CP. Tremors and exaggerated posturing (option C) are not typical features of ataxic CP. Hemiplegia (paralysis of one side of the body) and hypertonia (increased muscle tone) mentioned in option D are more commonly seen in other types of cerebral palsy, such as spastic CP.

Similar Questions